Please elaborate.
But that doesn't preclude our current continental borders or conceptions of continents being racially tinged.
Masada is correct to point out that the location of the dividing line, with a few exceptions, is almost entirely arbitrary.
Mouthwash said:Why are Europe and Asia considered two separate continents? Just call it Eurasia
Well, indeed according to many geographers, Eurasia is a continent. Europe is technically a peninsula of Eurasia.
So Europe is a peninsula and can be called a subcontinent - just like India:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subcontinent
In such case the Ural Mountains and the Caucasus region would good boundaries for the European subcontinent.
JEELEN said:How does that even follow?
Yeah. And as you noted, Eastern Europe is a specious term that for a lot of Western Europeans carries all sorts of negative connotations. I admit I use it as a geographic concept because it's convenient. I guess from an Antipodean perspective the word lacks a lot of the connotation common to say England. Where people seem unduly petrified about Romanians/Poles/Eastern Europeans "flooding" the place.Domen said:IMO Europe is at least to the same extent a cultural concept as a geographic one.
I don't think Asians typically have a strong sense of being "Asian", Asia being after all European construct. I certainly can't see why, e.g. a Chinese person would have any more reason to regard ancient Mesopotamia as "their heritage" than a Swedish person.IMO Europe is at least to the same extent a cultural concept as a geographic one.
But if we start calling Asia Eurasia, some Asians might accuse us that we want to steal their heritage.
After all first civilizations were (excluding Egypt) all located in Asia - Mesopotamia, India, China, Anatolia.
In Europe we only had those city-states on Crete - and that was still much later, IIRC.
I don't think Asians typically have a strong sense of being "Asian", Asia being after all European construct. I certainly can't see why, e.g. a Chinese person would have any more reason to regard ancient Mesopotamia as "their heritage" than a Swedish person.
We choose to use the Urals as the continental dividing line, and to a lesser extent the southern borders of the North African countries, because using these means that the continents divide more neatly into ethnic categories. You end up, in this way, with an Asia full of Asians, an Africa full of Africans, and a Middle East full of Middle Easterners. Masada is correct to point out that the location of the dividing line, with a few exceptions, is almost entirely arbitrary.
That wasn't the point. The point was 'racially tinged'. And the Middle East is not a continent, Africa is not full of Africans, Asia is not full of Asians, etc. The whole idea of any racial tinge is not based on current ethnic dispositions.
I think what matters in this question is how people divide up the world rather than the strict definition of 'continents', and I do think people distinguish between the 'Middle East' and 'Asia' in the same way as they do between North, Central and South America. I think people definitely do divide the world in a way which happens to coincide with broad racial categories, but I'm not sure if you can say that the categories precede the division or vice-versa.
Apparently the Urals only became the accepted border between Asia and Europe in the 1860s. Earlier mapmakers tended to use either the Volga or Don as the border. I'm not sure why this changed but it could be related to the perception that European civilization was advancing into Asia carried on the coattails of Russian settlers.
That Jeleen can make the claim "Africa is not full of Africans" and be generally understood seems like evidence for rather than against geographic divisions having a racial tinge. When "African" can be used to describe sub-Saharan Africans specifically, other people from Africa being therefore "non-African", that doesn't suggest that the geographic categories are free of racial connotations, only that our racial categories aren't very good at apprehending the human realities, and that's something we knew already.
JEELEN said:By 1860 there were already plenty of Europeans in Asia. Again, I don't see how any of this relates to race.
JEELEN said:Again, that makes no sense. Nor does it relate to race. Africa is not full of Africans, because there's no such thing as 'Africans' - even disregarding 'subsaharan Africans'. The same applies to Asia and virtually every continent on Earth. This race issue simply does not apply to continents, but rather what people think of continents. Those are two very different things. Racism is a thing of the mind. The continents don't care. Earth doesn't care. And essentially, people don't care, as they mix - and have mixed - since there were humans on the planet. Only certain people care - about their own perceived 'race' or tribe or nation. Now if we were living in the heyday of imperialism, things might have been different. But we don't. Get over it.
Really? You are aware of the Indian subcontinent... in Asia?
Yeah, so what. The point I was making is that the definition of what constituted Europe and what constituted Asia changed. I posited that this might have had something to do with the consolidation of Russia's hold over parts of what was once Asia but is now Europe presumably as a result of settlement.
Yes it does. People throw around the term African as though it has some meaning. That you think those people are stupid is neither here nor there.