Homosexuals Get Equal Rights In New Jersey

El_Machinae said:
In Canada, the reason why the law owns the definition is because they defined it in a legal document. This means that we have a legal definition of marriage. This definition then gets applied to all the common law that we partake of.

Like you know, the legal definition does not have to be the same as the social definition. The social definition will (likely) be a result of consensus (for the same reason we all agree that a 'spoon' is a 'spoon' - we all agree to call it that). However, the legal definition is a bit different - once defined, it's something that the whole of the law will apply to.

Oh I agree with that 100%, my point being is that the church cannot dictate how the word may be used by government or anyone else. People keep arguning that the term "marriage" is a religious term and therefore should not be trfiled with and redefined by others, but as we have seen, government, or anyone, can use the word as they wish.
 
I know you know. I'm just trying to remind people that the legal definition of something and the societal definition can be two different things
 
Zarn said:
I wouldn't care so much, but you make it sound direct democracy is the only way. If that were true, our fellow citizens would have withdrawn our troops form Iraq long before now.

It depends on how each states process works for state constitutional amendments or in a state referendum process. I dont think EVERYTHING deserves a direct vote, but there are ways to get such a law/amendment in front of the people.
 
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