Originally posted by allan2
Actually, at what point does linguistic divergence cease to be "dialect" and become "another language"? One could say, for instance, that Spanish and French are "dialects" of Latin, depending on where they draw that line. Same for Russian/Ukranian/Belorussian/Polish being "dialects" of each other, or the Scandinavian languages (of which someone recently said they have an "automatic" understanding of all, due to being a native speaker of one).
Is there a scientifically-defined line? Or is it something more or less subjective? Just curious.