Bluemofia
F=ma
Ok, I need to find the fallacy in the argument that 0=1. (int means integral)
int(dx/x)
dv = dx --> v = x
u = 1/x --> du = (-1/(x^2))dx
int(dx/x) = (1/x)(x) - int((-1/(x^2)(x)dx)
int(dx/x) = 1 + int(dx/x)
0=1
What is wrong with this proof?
int(dx/x)
dv = dx --> v = x
u = 1/x --> du = (-1/(x^2))dx
int(dx/x) = (1/x)(x) - int((-1/(x^2)(x)dx)
int(dx/x) = 1 + int(dx/x)
0=1
What is wrong with this proof?