Having a constitution means having a limited government? Frankly, I'm quite surprised to find out that the French Republic has a limited government, as far as the Libertarian meaning is concerned.
The Constitution of the French First Republic was completely suppressed by the time the Reign of Terror began. Had it been obeyed, it would've been something of a limited government, though less so than the United States.
At any rate, the Federalist Papers also contains a very interesting defense of a federal union by Jefferson.
Jefferson didn't write any of the Federalist Papers. In fact, he played almost no part in the formulation of the Constitution, as he was serving as ambassador to France at the time of its debate and ratification. I'm assuming you meant James Madison here.
Basically his argument was that the union provided for a national political battle ground that would help alleviate the tyranny of parochial interests in their localities. In fact, it seems to me that the American Founding Fathers were more interested in avoiding political tyranny of any sort, especially through but not limited to the over-centralisation of government. Does that imply limited government? Maybe, but I suspect only in the sense of limiting a tyrannical one. The existence of checks and balances does not mean limited government in the Libertarian parlance.
The context of the Federalist Papers was in favor of the Constitution against the Articles of Confederation. So Hamilton, Madison and Jay were arguing that the nature of the Articles meant that the central government had little power to resist against factions, and that a government under the U.S. Constitution would be more suited for that purpose.
Perhaps more relevant than Federalist No. 10, however, would be No. 84, which argues that a Bill of Rights is unnecessary because it is implied by the Constitution that those rights are already protected.
The original claim was that the USA is the antithesis of centralized government. My point is we have built a centralized government from the beginning, and for that I have cited the development of the Constitutional government as more centralized than the AoC. Interpreting this to mean "as small as practicable" is but one of many possible opinions people could have held at this time.
That's not what you were arguing against before. Before, you were trying to imply that the notion of "limited government" has been falsely
post facto applied to what the Founding Fathers established, which is demonstrably false. Now you're simply saying that the U.S. had a federal government, which is tautological.
I'm still not convinced your argument is winning in this case, and perhaps it is because I'm not making my point clearly. Consider that Virginia signed a separate peace at the end of the Revolution, while under the new Constitution no individual state could maintain any separate foreign embassy. Consider the new Constitution had broad powers with regards to regulating commerce: individual states would not be able to levy tariffs or engage in protectionist economic practices against other states. Consider the new government could levy taxes more easily (and force compliance) instead of simply requesting its operating funds and hoped the individual states complied. Although the national bank is not explicitly part of the Constitution, consider the new government had the authority to form a national bank and declare a single national currency, as opposed to individual state currencies. Consider the creation of a national judicial branch, with an appointed Supreme Court that had authority over local courts on the interpretation of law.
Yes, I know what the differences between the Articles and the Constitution are. These aren't relevant to the matter at hand (well, at least before, when apparently we were talking about something different I guess).
To call this government more limited than an autocracy is to compare all temperatures on the Kelvin scale against absolute zero; all differences seem small compared to such a distant set point (and this is how I see your argument about it being the "most limited"). The point is that the government installed in 1789, willingly, by the same people who fought that supposedly "anti-government" revolution against Britain, is far more centralized than their previous government.
Okay. No argument there. Are you aware that even though the U.S. Constitution gives more power to the federal government, that the government still had far less power than that of the United Kingdom?
That implies, to me, that their problem was not with the nature of government but with their lack of participation in it.
Conclusion doesn't follow from the premises.
I would say the lack of American representation in the Parliament was one of the key factors fueling the revolution--after all, the phrase is "no taxation without representation".
That was hardly the only problem. The colonists also perceived that they fought for British expansionism in North America without being fairly rewarded. The British had also disallowed the Americans from trading with anybody but other territories in the Empire, not to mention various other problems.
I do not recall individual essays from The Federalist and will have to wait to comment more extensively on this. However, pointing out the microevolution again: going from way too little federal power to a good balance of federal power is centralization.
You keep harping on that but that's entirely irrelevant to what we're talking about.