I already saw that thread. Skimming your post, the underpopulation problem I assume is a problem of the entire empire & the food supply issue I'm assuming is due to not enough farmers (correct me if I'm mistaken).
Again, Rome's population crashed because it's takes an organized & stable empire to support large cities. All empires that crashed had massive population declines in their urban areas.
It's fine to say, "well they all dispersed to the countryside" but how exactly would that work today when people from the countryside are flocking to cities as fast as their hungry legs can carry them?
People seem to get all excited to knee-jerk react/refer on forums without first trying to understand the point a person is making.
Yeah, the skimming doesn't help. The only verdict we can make on population levels within the WRE before it ceased to exist is that some areas that weren't very important to the empire overall (e.g. northern Gaul)
may have been experiencing a decline in population within a period significant to the collapse of the state, and that in turn is chiefly based on the lack of certain metrics which do not, in themselves, indicate population decline. If the people in a certain location stop building in stone, stop using coinage of a certain kind, and stop using certain kinds of relatively hardy ceramic ware, they are archaeologically invisible. That's essentially all we can say about northern Gaul in that period. Various possible reasons have been put forth for this archaeological invisibility, including a simple loss of political control of the area from the 380s onward, which entailed the departure of probably the most significant population agglomerations in the area, which were 1) the legions on the Rhine and 2) the communities associated with imperial patronage, which ceased to be after Gratianus moved the capital back to Italy.
And that's just
one area - northern Gaul. In other areas population decline is archaeologically impossible until
after Roman political control ended. In certain others, such as parts of Italy, it may have gone down, but we're not entirely sure to what extent this is migration internal to Rome and to what extent it is people dying off. (And of that migration, we don't know the circumstances; were these people moving around in the same way they'd been moving around Europe since, oh, time immemorial, or were they victims of a violent expulsion, or what?) In Britain, the archaeological evidence is such that we can't tell if the population started to become archaeologically invisible starting in the 380s or the 450s. (The 410s is usually considered to be the best bet based on coinage, but that's only one metric!) And in the overwhelming majority of the territory of the western Roman Empire, population did not noticeably decline until long after the empire ceased to be - the Eastern Mediterranean pandemic is usually assigned the role of culprit, and that didn't happen until the 540s. (And had nothing to do with the fact that there were no longer any reigning emperors in Ravenna.)
The tl;dr version of the above is essentially that depopulation and the political demise of the Roman state in Western Europe are impossible to connect in any meaningful way across the entire spectrum of Roman society.
Your comment about large and stable empires being a necessity for cities is of course silly. (Although if it were true, I'm not sure what point you'd be attempting to prove - as PCH mentioned, it seems to be an argument for political centralization if nothing else, something of which I don't think you're a huge fan!) Urbanization in non-imperial contexts is of course well documented in classical Greece and post-Berengar Italy. Complex societies do not require political centralization. Various explanations have been put forth for the "Great Simplification" of the fifth and sixth centuries, most of which are fairly unconvincing and which require some leaps in logic (most famous of these being Walter Goffart's super-revisionism, which makes for a complicated read!). Plenty of them seem to make the point that in the Roman West, the simplification was not necessarily tied to the political demise of Rome. In some places, it happened earlier (sometimes much earlier); in some, it didn't occur for centuries.
I'm not really interested in tying the case of Rome to the modern world, because circumstances are so radically different. Usually, historical comparisons are bad, or at least poorly thought through, and one can't really learn from the "mistakes" of the past in order to "correct" one's actions in the present.