I still find this framing strange - there are three civs from the Indian subcontinent, but why the framing of "India gets three and some people gets none" implies a much greater level of connection and/or continuity between these civs than there was historically. They're different cultures, they're different language groups, they're different in a huge number of ways. Why does "India get multiple slots" but Europe isn't treated the same? What connection do the Chola, an empire from the far south of India, have to the Mughals, an empire with a Turkic/Mongol ruling class based out of far-north India have that France and Spain do not? For comparison, the capital cities of these two states were about 2,000 km apart - would including Rome and Russia count as 'multiple slots for Europe' on that basis? There are three civs that predominantly held territory in modern-day India, but if that's the only connection, it's a pretty flimsy one in my opinion.