Lohrenswald
世界的 bottom ranked physicist
Oh yeah oops, I read 0,999... Instead of 0,999
My bad
The infinite sum of that sequence is still 1, though
My bad
The infinite sum of that sequence is still 1, though
0.999... is an element of the sequence (0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...)
Are you sure?
Can't we define an infinite sequence, then?
Oh yeah oops, I read 0,999... Instead of 0,999
My bad
The infinite sum of that sequence is still 1, though
An infinite sequence of non-repeating decimals is never going to contain a repeating decimal, though.
Why is this thread still alive?
The limit of the sum is 1, not the sum itself.
I think I understand what you meant to say.
0.999... is an element of the sequence (0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...)
The sequence you have enclosed in brackets in the quote above only includes non-repeating decimals, such as 0.99. It does not include decimals that go on into infinity, such as 0.999...
Yes!![]()
If you take the limit of the sum as n approaches infinity, then you do get one, but then you are talking about the limit.it is if you take all n's to infinity
The sequence does have countably infinite terms, but it has that regardless of if is 0.9999... is a member. Most sequences however map to the whole numbers, so (0.9,0.99,0.999 ... 0.999...) would be a strange sequence because infinity is not a whole number. 0.99... would have to be the infinitieth term to be in that sequence. It would also have the unique distinction of not having a predecessor -- all whole numbers have a predecessor, but infinity does not. So just because all other terms in (0.9,0.99,0.999 ... 0.999...) are less then one, it does not necessarily follow that 0.999.... is less than one. Because 0.999... does not have an immediate predecessor, you cannot use induction to reason about it. You don't have an infinity - 1 member in the series. (unless you wanna say that infinity is it's own predecessor, but that doesn't help induction any)Why?
As a practical matter I understand. However, it is a practical, not a theoretical distinction. There is no theoretical reason why the sequence cannot have countably infinite terms. We construct infinite sets all the time. However, using the limit of the sequence makes the situation more tractable.
J
If you take the limit of the sum as n approaches infinity, then you do get one, but then you are talking about the limit.
The sequence does have countably infinite terms, but it has that regardless of if is 0.9999... is a member. Most sequences however map to the whole numbers, so (0.9,0.99,0.999 ... 0.999...) would be a strange sequence because infinity is not a whole number. 0.99... would have to be the infinitieth term to be in that sequence. It would also have the unique distinction of not having a predecessor -- all whole numbers have a predecessor, but infinity does not. So just because all other terms in (0.9,0.99,0.999 ... 0.999...) are less then one, it does not necessarily follow that 0.999.... is less than one. Because 0.999... does not have an immediate predecessor, you cannot use induction to reason about it. You don't have an infinity - 1 member in the series. (unless you wanna say that infinity is it's own predecessor, but that doesn't help induction any)
I was agreeing with you and responding to Lohrenswald's remark that apparently suggested that an infinite sum equals something that's distinct from its limit at infinity.This is redundant. The limit of the infinite sum is the limit. What does it add to the conversation?
Yes, a sequence can be thought of as a mapping of whole numbers to a set. In this case an infinite set. I'm not saying that you can't have a sequence that also has a defined value at infinity. It's not a traditional sequence at that point, but that's ok with me.You used the key word "map". A mapping is a function. You assign elements of one set to elements of of another set, which means you are no longer dealing with the first set. Specifically, you enlarge an open segment by adding a end point. One common theme of the thread is that using the limit is a transform, mapping an uncountable set onto a countable one.
No one has raised induction before. Interesting. IIRC you do not need an infinite term to use induction, merely an arbitrarily large one.
J
I was agreeing with you and responding to Lohrenswald's remark that apparently suggested that an infinite sum equals something that's distinct from its limit at infinity.
0.999... is an element of the sequence (0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...).
That is the weirdest attempted proof yet. Don't say "just". If you dig in the thread there is some confusion on that point. One thing is clear, 0.999 < 1. Your statement, that 0.99... >= lim(0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ....) is always false. I am unsure how you would think it was true.0.99.. is just shorthand for a zero followed by an infinite number of nines.
if you agree that lim (0.9+0.09+0.009+...)=1, then it follows that 0.99.. is also 1.
Since every term in the sequence (0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ....) is smaller then 0.99.. we know that lim(0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ....) is less or equal to 0.99..
so we get 0.99 >= lim(0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ....) = 1. i.e. 0.99.. >= 1.
J
Why?
I think this the root of the problem. 0.99... is not in that sequence. The sequence does not contain any number with infinite number of nines. Every number in the sequence is finite.
@onejayhawk, 10*.999... = ?
Even if that set has an infinite number of elements in it, you've defined it to only include non-repeating decimals such as 0.99. (by listing the first three elements the way you did - they're all non-repeating decimals)
So basically what you've got an infinite set with only non-repeating decimals in it, so it can't possibly include 0.999...
Basically what Folket is saying:
There is a jump in the thread here. Which definition are you referring to? J
0.999... is an element of the sequence (0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...)