Hygro
soundcloud.com/hygro/
A hand of fingers!
awkwardness ensues.
awkwardness ensues.
Was that an attempt at a dirty joke?A hand of fingers!
awkwardness ensues.
No they're not5 is defined as 1+1+1+1+1. All the integers and rational numbers (and others) are defined from '1' and '+'.
You define multiplication as repeated addition. Then subtraction and division are inverse functions of addition and multiplication. With integers and division you can define rational numbers.No they're not
and most rational numbers you can't make with adding 1's. Like 1/2, for example
We could go back to talking politics but that's even more irrational.Back to forty pages. I may be going insane here.
Back to forty pages. I may be going insane here.
You glimpse some of the difficulties. Generally, 'one' and 'plus' are left undefined to ease other definitions.
Did you ignore it? Try reading some of the discussion.Did you completely ignore the link I posted right above? These things have definitions.
These are attempts at definition.
That is because it is confusing. The short answer is no. No, they are not fully proved from first principle and no, they are not definitions. As it happens, definition is defined. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Well-defined These attempts do not meet the criteria.So you are ignoring definitions of the things you are saying aren't defined.. because.. you call them "attempts"? Even though they are fully proved and derived from first principles?
I'm confused. Are you just ignoring the definitions because you don't understand them?
There are (at least) two competing versions, only one of which is equal to one.
The point is that neither is a real definition. To be well-defined, a proposed definition must be both unambiguous and dispositive, also stated necessary and sufficient. The definitions I have seen for 0.999... are neither. If there is a proper definition, I cannot find it.The other one is not a real definition, which means there's only one. Good, now that we have that settled we can definitely say that the only definition is equal to 1, end of story
This is the key phrase. Or, perhaps, approaching is the key word. One approaches a limit. One does not reach it. However, that is the claim if 0.999... = 1. It is all another way of saying close enough.Regardless of used/current definitions, intuitively it seems to make much more sense to claim that 0.9999.... is ever approaching a limit, namely of a progression like 1/2+1/4+1/8+... Afaik the limit is to 1 but you never get 1 while still in the progression, and intuitively writing down 0.999... is a progression, not the bit right after it ends (ie 1).
Eg the spiral of fibonacci numbers has a limit to the golden ratio spiral, approaching it from two sides (larger, smaller, larger, smaller etc). It never will become the golden ratio spiral, which is its limit and not part of the fibonacci series in any position of it.
This is the key phrase. Or, perhaps, approaching is the key word. One approaches a limit. One does not reach it. However, that is the claim if 0.999... = 1. It is all another way of saying close enough.
J
So is the problem here that the undefined bit is the meaning of ...? Would everyone agree that?![]()
Yikes. That does not mean anything. If you mean to ask if limit(sum(9*10^-n) for all n>0)) = 1 then yes. The question is whether 0.999... = limit(sum(9*10^-n) for all n>0)). The alternative is that 0.999... = (sum(9*10^-n) for all n>0) =/= 1.So is the problem here that the undefined bit is the meaning of ...? Would everyone agree that?![]()
That is because it is confusing. The short answer is no. No, they are not fully proved from first principle and no, they are not definitions.