Because you seem to be arguing that LGBTQ people shouldn't be favoured.
More specifically, I mean that people should be all treated consistently. So if people should not be discriminated about their sexual preferences, then it should work the same for everyone.
But somebody is, ultimately, favoured. We favour actors because they're famous, or because we think they're good, or whatever. Being LGBTQ affects how well someone can fit the role, right? Sure, we can't measure it, but what I'm saying is worlds apart from hiring LGBTQ folk for the sake of hiring them. Right?
I'll take a parallel.
I need to hire some people for whatever work, and an essential component of this work is that the person should be at least 1,7 m tall. Now, we agree that on average, women tend to be noticeably smaller than men.
Does that mean I should favour men over women when I hire people ?
Or does that mean I should measure each people who come, and then hire them on the relevant aspect relative to the work (i.e. their size) ?
Doing the latter will obviously mean I will statistically recruit more men than women, but the important aspect is that I will not actually take the gender of the person into account, only their ability to fit the work requirements.
The assumption driving backlash to this thread is the notion that people who aren't the best fit for the role would be hired.
Can't speak for other, but I think it's pretty clear that my backlash is absolutely not about the result, and entirely about the method.
It's not about "the person hired wouldn't be the best fit", it's about "if you can't discriminate against population X about criterium A, then you can't discriminate against population Y about criterium B". I think it's pretty clear in all my post history that I dislike double-standards first and foremost.