No other genocide was more intensive and decisive as the Holocaust.
As I wrote, Rwandan Genocide was over 10,000 deaths per day - on average. Was the Holocaust really more intensive?
I don't think that the Jewish part of the Holocaust* was a match for this - considering that it lasted much longer than Rwanda Genocide.
*I wrote "the Jewish part", because Nazi crimes on nations other than Jews are sometimes also included into what is called "the Holocaust".
Regarding the % of victims - the genocide of Gypsies killed similar % of European Gypsies as the Holocaust did with European Jews. There were ca. 8.862 million Jews in Europe in 1939 according to Dawidowicz, ca. 8.6 million of them according to Johnson fell under direct or indirect influences of Nazi Germany.
Estimates of the number of Jewish victims of Holocaust vary, but probably European Jews lost slightly over 60% of total population.
American Jews, on the other hand, didn't suffer any losses during the Holocaust. Many of them only lost their European families.
The holocaust had started by an idea of a man who thought to himself: "I just have to kill them all cause I hate them!!"
Rather "I just have to kill them cause I hate them and there is no other way to get rid of them." Remember, that at the beginning the Nazis wanted to deport the Jews somewhere (there were many proposals - starting from Palestine, Madagascar & Australia, ending on Siberia) rather than kill them.
Check:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Holocaust#Resettlement_and_deportation
I think the death industry was more expensive than deportation.
OTOH, Nazi Germany compensated for expenses on creation & work of their death industry by stealing property of the victims.
I always wondered if Nazi Germany spent more money than it earned on the Holocaust, or inversely.
Especially in Germany, which doesn't have a history of Jewish pogroms like in Russia or in Spain.
Most genocides werre caused by some kind of national rivalry between the groups of people, or because of a conflict between them.
Of course that Germany has a history of Jewish pogroms - and the Kristallnacht of 1938 was by no means the first of them.
Already in Medieval Germany Jewish pogroms were taking place just like in Medieval Spain.
In period 1096 - 1349 a series of pogroms in Germany caused massive emigration of Jews from Germany to Poland. Later anti-Semitism in Germany continued - for example Martin Luther openly proclaimed anti-Jewish slogans. Check for example Martin Luther's "Von den Jüden und iren Lügen" ("About the Jews and their Lies") published in 1543. Later was a period of anti-Semitism gradually decreasing in Germany, this was also caused by Jewish Haskalah.
But in the second half of 19th century when German nationalism was born, anti-Semitism once again started to grow.
Most genocides werre caused by some kind of national rivalry between the groups of people, or because of a conflict between them.
Holocaust was caused by this as well. It was caused by national rivalry between Germans and Jews.
The former (Germans) accused the latter (Jews) of contributing to German defeat in WW1 and to other disasters that fell on Germany.
Of course the Holocaust had also racist backgrounds (Jews - especially Eastern European Jews - Ost Juden - were considered subhumans).
But racism and racial hatred is born as the result of some other conflicts and rivalry.
German Jews were more assimilated with the rest of German society than for example in Russia. But still it did not prevent the distinction between "we" and "them" made by many Germans in the age of growing nationalism (1850s - 1930s). Of course this distinction applied to all minorities.
Already in 1916 the German army ordered to carry out Judenzählung - a count of all Jews serving in the army. It was already "racial" segregation.
Later Jews were accused of German defeat in WW1. Why Jews? Probably because they were the most influential & numerous minority in Germany.
In Russia Haskalah movement was weak. Haskalah contributed to reduction of differences & conflicts between Jews and Christians in Western Europe.
In Russia Haskalah didn't take place on such scale, and thus Jews did not assimilate with the rest of the society to the same degree.
Therfore, the purpose of the genocide is usually not "absolute extinction".
The purpose of any genocide is to "get rid of them from our territory / sphere of influence" - and so was the purpose of the Holocaust.
If the purpose of the Holocaust was "absolute extinction", Hitler would invade the USA - because it had the largest Jewish community on Earth.
The main purpose of Hitler was not to get rid of all Jews, but to gain "Lebensraum" for the German nation in the East.
But of course Hitler wanted that "Lebensraum" to be clear of Jews - and only that's why he exterminated local Jews who lived there.
In other words - he didn't capture that land
to kill Jews who lived there. He killed Jews who lived there
because he captured that land.
The Nazis considered the Jewish nation as a problem, an obstacle in their race to their "1000 Years Reich" - not as a target itself.