History Questions Not Worth Their Own Thread VI

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The Roman era covers a couple centuries. Sometimes morals were liberal. Other times there was a conservative backlash against those 'decadent' morals and an idealization of traditional Roman values like family, the hard-working farmer life etc. IIRC during emperor Augustus there was such a backlash against the decadency of the previous period.

That's a good point, and definitely something I should have taken into consideration. I do vaguely recall something about Augustus having some conservative tendencies.

Perhaps a better question would be whether there was any period during Rome's existence where the "TOGA PARTY ORGIES FOR EVERONE" Hollywood stereotype held some grain of truth?
 
A following question to my previous one: when did the Romans stop being Romans and started being French, English, Spanish, etc etc?
 
At the popular level, no-one had heard of Wallace until Mel Gibson - at least in England.
Wallace was well-known in Scotland before Braveheart, but I'd say that it's had an impact on the mythology even here. It used to be that Bruce was the Christ-figure with Wallace as his John the Baptist, and you'll even see a little of that in the film itself, where Wallace implores Bruce to take up the crown. Now they seemed to be viewed on a more equal footing, Wallace even occasionally overshadowing Bruce.
 
How do British Historians view the life and achievements of (sir) William Wallace?
I am not sure if it is a speculation British historians entertain, but at least some historians believe that William Wallace only continued the fight after the Scottish nobles made peace with the English (after the English crushed Wallace's army) because the English king demanded Wallace to totally subdue himself to him. Which means no guarantees whatsoever. So Wallace had good reason to fear for his life, so he really had no choice but try to continue the fight. Which puts the hero worship of the movie into perspective.

Also historians are pretty sure that he never boned the French queen ;)
 
I am not sure if it is a speculation British historians entertain, but at least some historians believe that William Wallace only continued the fight after the Scottish nobles made peace with the English (after the English crushed Wallace's army) because the English king demanded Wallace to totally subdue himself to him. Which means no guarantees whatsoever. So Wallace had good reason to fear for his life, so he really had no choice but try to continue the fight. Which puts the hero worship of the movie into perspective.

Also historians are pretty sure that he never boned the French queen ;)

Hopefully not Isabella, since she was 9-10 years old at the time.
 
Ever heard of the mythical island of Hy Brazil(Brasil)?-from which the country of Brazil took it's name, it was supposedly located w of Ireland in the Atlantic Ocean and have disappeared under it's waves a few hundred years ago, bunch of crock?
 
I have a question to MaxPuster:

In this link below, you wrote:

http://forums.civfanatics.com/showpost.php?p=13247027&postcount=20

MaxPuster said:
A similar (if slightly different) case was started deliberately by Papadopoli in 1726, claiming that Copernicus joined the Polish natio at Padua and thus must have been Polish (while in fact there was no such Polish natio at Padua, and records of Bologna where a Polish natio existed show that Copernikus joined the German natio there before) - a falsification that started some 290 years of - yet inconclusive - debate on Copernicus heritage.

You are mistaken here, there was a Polish Natio at Padua during the 16th century (and also much earlier, already from the 13th century):

http://pl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nacja_(uniwersytet)#Polska_nacja_na_uniwersytetach_europejskich

Translated with use of: http://free-website-translation.com/?pl

http://translate.google.com/transla...9#Polska_nacja_na_uniwersytetach_europejskich

Not only Polish Natio existed at Padua during the 1400s and the 1500s, but it also had its own inn and its own student club.

About Polish Natio at Padua - excerpt from from the Google-translated link posted above (I have improved the Google-translation a bit):

(...) Seven Poles were elected rectors of the University of Padua, among them - then a 21-year-old youth - future Hetman of the Crown, Jan Zamoyski. In the years 1556-1589 Polish Natio in Padua had an inn for its members, and Polish students in Padua were famous for their elegance [28]. Luke Górnicki mentioned [29], the existence at Padua of "the academy between Poles" (...) it was a kind of a student club, where young people enjoyed Renaissance Italian ways: drinking, singing, entertaining, social games, and - what is most characteristic - discussing hundreds of topics about love and politics, the arts and everyday life. In each of these discussions one was expected to show wit, erudition, intelligence. The initiator of the "academy" was in 1553 or 1554 Wojciech Kryski [30] , which can now be referred to as a precursor to the idea of student research. Also Barycz mentions this organization [21]. (...)

For example Witelo (Erazm Ciołek) was member of that Polish Natio at Padua (even though only his mother was ethnic Polish, while his father was an immigrant who came to Poland from Thuringia - but I'm not sure whether he was Slavic from Thuringia or German from Thuringia):

(...) During the first four centuries (13th - 16th) Polish Natio is clearly recognizable at European universities. Among the first, and once the most prominent Poles studying at European universities, was Witelo (Erasmus Ciolek). In Paris he studied liberal arts in the years 1250-1260, and then in Padua canon law - there at Sala dei Quaranta can be found his image described WITELO POLACCO XIII SECOLO [25]. (...)

Polish Natio at Bologna existed in general, but I'm not sure whether it existed (or how many students and professors it had) in particular in year 1496, when Kopernik started studying there. So maybe he signed in to the German Natio because there were not so many students and professors in the Polish Natio at that time (and it was thus insignificant), or because the Polish Natio did not exist at that particular time.

What is your source that in 1496 there was a Polish Natio at Bologna ???

BTW - please note that "German Natio" doesn't mean that only ethnic Germans belonged there. Many Slavic people from the Holy Roman Empire, from Ducal Prussia, etc. (just to mention Czechs from Bohemia and Moravia, Poles and Czechs from Silesia, etc.) also belonged to the "German Natio". And for example at the University of Paris, there was neither Polish Natio nor German Natio - both Germans and Poles belonged to the English Natio there.

I found several articles which say that there was no Polish Natio at Bologna at that time (1496), and that Germans, Poles, Hungarians and several other groups belonged to the German Natio. Do you have sources which contradict this and say that there was a Polish Natio at Bologna in 1496 ???

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Paris was conservative and decided that number of nations at their university should be fixed at 4 and did not allow any increase of their number.

This why Italians, Spaniards, etc., belonged to French Natio and Germans, Poles, Hungarians, etc., to English Natio (until it was renamed):



In most of other Medieval universities a greater diversity of nations could be found and number of nations was not fixed, but flexible.

But there were also some universities which did not divide students for nations at all.

=====================================

If there was no Polish Natio at Bologna then anyone Polish would be assigned to the nearest Natio:

A similar division of students had been adopted at the Charles University in Prague, where from its opening in 1347 the studium generale was divided among Bohemian, Bavarian, Saxon, and Polish nations. When there was not a "natio" of a given nationality, students were assigned to another nation.

And according to Alexandre Koyre, Natio Germanorum was among the "privileged" nations at Bologna:

Although great importance has frequently been ascribed to this fact, it does not by any means imply that Copernicus ever considered himself to be German. The 'nationes' of a medieval university had nothing in common with nations in the modern sense of the word. Students who were natives of Prussia and Silesia were automatically described as belonging to the Natio Germanorum. Furthmore, at Bologna, this was the 'privileged' nation".

Alexandre Koyre: Astronomical Revolution, Copernicus - Kepler - Borelli. Cornell University Press, 1973
 
Copernicus was a Prussian who opposed the Germanic Teutonic Knights and supported the Polish Kingdom? was he Polish or German, mixed? If he was a Prussian then he was German, right? unclear?
 
Copernicus was a Prussian who opposed the Germanic Teutonic Knights and supported the Polish Kingdom? was he Polish or German, mixed?

He was mixed. His mother's family was of German origin while his father's family was of Polish origin.

Yet he lived in one of provinces of the Kingdom of Poland, was a loyal subject of the Polish King and opposed the Teutonic Order.

IMO there is no doubt that he was Prussian and Polish, rather than German in the modern sense.

He was fluent in German language, as he was in Polish and Latin. He wrote his works in Latin, which was rather typical for Non-Germans at that time (Germans of the 1400s and 1500s often wrote in German, only sometimes in Latin; while Poles of the 1400s usually wrote in Latin, rarely in Polish or German).

Surname Kopernik is a Polish surname, which can be also seen when we check modern frequencies of this and related surnames:

http://www.verwandt.de/karten/

http://www.moikrewni.pl/mapa/



And the most frequent first name among 22 Koperniks in Germany is "Lesław", while that 1 Kopernatzki in Germany is "Janusz".

So even these few people with Kopernik-related surnames who live in Germany, have mostly Polish first names.

If he was a Prussian then he was German, right?

Nope. Prussians in the ethnic sense of this word were West Baltic-speaking people related to modern East Baltic Latvians and Lithuanians.

Another meaning of Prussians is all inhabitants of the region of Prussia - therefore both Germans, Poles, Scots, Balts, Jews, other ethnic groups.

It is like with Britons. Ethnic Britons were Celtic-speaking people. Modern English people who live in Britain do not speak that language.

So Germans, Poles or Lithuanians, etc., who lived in Prussia were as much Prussian as English people who live in Britain are British.
 
In the chart I posted above there are several "Germanized" variants of spelling of surname Kopernik.

But as you can see these are not real surnames (nobody has them) but distorted forms of surname Kopernik, which really exists.

In documents of Torun's City Council - which were written in German language - we can find many such distorted Polish surnames.

In year 1528 among members of the city council of Torun were, for example:

- Stenczel Poganke (from Polish surname: Poganka)
- Brosian Szczirba (from Polish surname: Szczerba)

And in year 1550 among members of the city council of Torun was, for example:

- Greger Schweczke (from Polish surname: Swieczka)

We can also find people with Polish first names but German surnames:

- Pawel Goldberg (under 1550)
 
A question:
Did the Aztecs and the Mayas interact (have contact) between their empires while the Maya Empire was still around?
Is it possible that the Aztecs had anything to do with the decline of the Mayan empire? (guess not)
 
A question:
Did the Aztecs and the Mayas interact (have contact) between their empires while the Maya Empire was still around?
Is it possible that the Aztecs had anything to do with the decline of the Mayan empire? (guess not)

There was never a Mayan empire or close to it. There was only a messy collection of city-states and kingdoms fighting each other - you can think of Renaissance Italy or Ancient Greece as a comparison.

Anyways, there was probably some contact, and the Aztecs did rule over territory close to the Mayans, but not one-on-one diplomatic relations you're thinking of.

As for the decline of the Mayans, the Mayan civilization "collapsed" centuries before the Aztecs even came to Mexico, so there wasn't really any connection between that.
 
Is there any indication the Maya saw themselves as having a shared identity (similar to how the Poleis viewed themselves in Greece)?
 
So...by what I've understood, the Roman Empire wasn't ended by invading barbarians, but rather, it split up?

The story of short reign of Emperor Majorian shows that the Western Roman Army was still perfectly able to defeat barbarians even after year 450 AD:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Majorian

Majorian (Latin: Flavius Julius Valerius Majorianus Augustus; ca. 420 – August 7, 461) was the Western Roman Emperor from 457 to 461.

A prominent general of the Late Roman army, Majorian deposed Emperor Avitus in 457 and succeeded him. Majorian was one of the last emperors to make a concerted effort to restore the Western Roman Empire. Possessing little more than Italy, Dalmatia, and some territory in northern Gaul, Majorian campaigned rigorously for three years against the Empire's enemies.

After defeating a Vandal attack on Italy, Majorian launched a campaign against the Visigothic Kingdom in southern Gaul. Defeating king Theodoric II at the Battle of Arelate, Majorian forced the Goths to abandon their possessions in Septimania and Hispania and return to federate status immediately. Majorian then attacked the Burgundian Kingdom, defeating them at the Siege of Lugdunum, expelling them from the Rhone valley and reducing them to federate status.

In 460, Majorian left Gaul to consolidate his hold on Hispania. His generals launched a campaign against the Suebic Kingdom in northwest Hispania, defeating them at the battles of Lucus Augusti and Scallabis and reducing them to federate status as well. His fleet for his campaign to restore Africa to the empire from the Vandals was destroyed due to treachery.

Majorian sought to reform the imperial administration in order to make it more efficient and just. The powerful general Ricimer deposed and killed Majorian, who had become unpopular with the senatorial aristocracy because of his reforms.

According to historian Edward Gibbon, Majorian "presents the welcome discovery of a great and heroic character, such as sometimes arise, in a degenerate age, to vindicate the honour of the human species".[1]

Map of Majorian's military campaigns:

Spoiler :

There was just too much internal chaos and too many intrigues (in which barbarians often played important roles) to consolidate the Western Empire:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Majorian#Fall_and_death
 
Were common people able to cross borders in western Europe at around 1700? Did they need passports? Did they need them to travel within their own country?

When did it become not unusual for a person of (say) Indian origin to walk by himself in London? What about black people?

Moreover, is there a method how you could find answers to this kind of questions on your own? Something else than asking CFC, that is.
 
If Napoleon never attacked Russia, what could he have achieved? or was the end of his military grip over Europe forthcoming anyway?

If Hitler invaded England during the early or middle stages of the aerial Battle of Britain instead of later turning his armies against the Soviet Union, could he have been successful? Would the RAF simply sink his transports prior to them arriving on British soil? would he have been able to take the whole island? Did he simply have to eventually invade the Soviets due to the need for their resources? Even if successful against England, Germany could've never conquered North America, later on, correct?

Did they both make a huge mistake, or had no other choice when they decided to turn away from plans of invading Britain and elected to have a go at the Russians instead?, both of them paid dearly for a similar decision.
 
Here's a tip: don't invade Russia, and never challenge the Royal Navy (unless you have mines and submarines and their commander shat their pants from panic).

And absolutely never do the two at the same time.
 
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