What else constitutes Christian values if not referenced to the teachings of Jesus! is this not the consensus of the term? I must admit I am rather taken aback at your argument here.
Jesus was the founder of Christianity, and Christians seek to follow him. But it doesn't follow from that that Christian values simply are, or are wholly determined by, the teachings of Jesus. Apart from anything else, Jesus seems not to have been primarily an ethical teacher (contrary to what Jefferson thought!) and his pronouncements on ethical subjects are pretty gnomic. This is why different Christians have come up with vastly differing ethical systems that they have still claimed to derive ultimately from him. It's not simply the case that some of them have remained true to Jesus while others have diverged: rather, the source material just isn't that explicit or systematic to start with.
Equally surprising is your assertion that even if Christian values are identified by the teachings of Jesus, you indicate that they are unknown or obscure. This may sound absurd coming from someone who is far less erudite in Christian theology, but I strongly disagree with you on this issue.
Your argument seems to entail that there are different perspectives with regards to Jesus or any other prophetical figure which to me is quite obvious, but the right perspective is easily attainable by researching the primary source documents that give the information about those people and their teachings. I recall you saying that there is sound scholarship that demonstrate that the Gospels were written early, not late. The Gospels represent eyewitness reports that give us a reasonably accurate account of what Jesus said and what he did, so I can't understand how you can claim that Jesus' values are unknown. Just because people may have differences of opinion about it, doesn't mean that nobody can possibley know. Now from a deconstructionist point of veiw (which it seems you adhere to), one can argue: "whose to say which is the correct perspective" or "Jesus' teachings are subject to interpretation." Well quite simply the erudite people with the best reasons "get to say," i.e. solid scholarship. You examine the writings and see if someone has accurately represented them.
I said that the canonical Gospels were (mostly) written earlier than the non-canonical ones, and that they are far more historical. But it doesn't follow from that that they are unproblematic sources. Every good historian knows that an earlier source is not necessarily to be preferred to a later one simply in virtue of its earliness. And it
certainly doesn't follow that the Gospels represent "eyewitness reports" - they do no such thing - or that they present a "reasonably accurate" view of the historical Jesus. If you want to know about the historical Jesus, your only sources are the canonical Gospels, but there is a vast heap of problems involved in interpreting them.
Now you can't just defer the question to New Testament scholars because there's no consensus. On one end of the spectrum you have those who think that the Gospels are terribly reliable and on the other you have those who think there's virtually nothing in them of historical value. I remember going to lectures on Mark by one of the most prominent scholars of John, when I was an undergraduate, and only once in the whole series did he touch upon the question whether the material was an accurate account of the historical Jesus; he said that in his view, the most one could say about any part of it was that it might reflect the
sort of thing that the real Jesus might have said or done. Which isn't exactly a ringing endorsement.
Now I'd be inclined to take a more positive view of it than that, at least to some degree, as I've argued before. However, the point is that even if I'm right to do so, there isn't any consensus in these notoriously difficult matters, and no-one really knows one way or the other.
For example I can take some of the things you said on your most recent posts, isolate them and then characterize you as some fundamnetalist Christian. If I were to do that you would most assuredly consider yourself ill abused, and rightly so! But you think nothing of it when people do the same thing to the teachings of Jesus (or the other prominent prophetical figures) by isolating his teachings and making them fit into there own world views and make Jesus into something which is not represented in the primary source documents. Literature does not decay over time.
But you have no reason to doubt that I am really the author of all the posts that appear here in my name, whereas we do have good reason to doubt that Jesus really said everything attributed to him. Furthermore, as I said, the material attributed to Jesus is fragmentary and unsystematic. Those who have tried to appeal to some parts but not others aren't necessarily distorting what he said by partiality, or at least not deliberately. It may make Jesus into something not represented by the primary sources, but how are you so certain that those primary sources don't misrepresent him to start with?
We are obviously approaching this subject from two different perspectives. I am refering to Christianity in its static manifestation, i.e. Biblical doctrine.
But that's not right at all. There is
no such thing as a "static manifestation" of Christianity. The Bible isn't some kind of manual of Christianity! Christianity has
never been about just the Bible. The Bible is
not the Christian equivalent of the Koran, however much
some Christian groups wish it were. The New Testament is simply a collection of texts from the early years of Christianity - texts which come from different churches and different traditions as it is, showing that there was enormous diversity in Christianity even then. There is no such thing as "Biblical doctrine" if by that you mean some uncomplicated system that is expounded in the New Testament and which all Christians are supposed to adhere to. The views of James are quite different from the views of Paul, which are in turn quite different from the views of Luke. Of course they share views as well or they wouldn't all be Christian, but it's clear that Christianity in New Testament times was anything but static. And even if it had been - even if the New Testament painted a picture of a single church with a single body of doctrine - that
still wouldn't be "the" "static manifestation" of Christianity, it would only be how it was at that point in time. Christianity didn't drop from heaven in a pure, complete form, only to become distorted by various churches over history; it's been constantly developing and changing in different directions, and no-one can say that one form is any more definitive than any other.
I am sure there has been various forms of defined economic or social systems that were influenced by Christian scripture, I mean the Church is the classic example of "Christian politics." If it didn't act as a state, it certainly was an institution that had a developed governmental system which dictated politics to all states in its sphere of influence. But the Biblical doctrine itself does not contain a developed system of governance. Am I incorrect in stating that the Bible has no governmental or political framework to run a state? The Church did not always operate in accordance to the teachings of Jesus, and I don't see how you can even suggest that it is biased or jaundiced to say that. I recall you saying the same thing on several occasions.
You're probably right that the Bible doesn't contain much politics, but as I tried to point out, that's not the point. Christianity is not limited to what's in the Bible. The Bible is just
one of the sources of Christian theology and values, not the be-all and end-all.
Whereas in your previous post you have asserted that a Christian nation and a post-Christian nation is indistinguishable, you now claim it is a simple matter to make the distinction. Perhaps you are losing patience with me and overlooked this dichotomy. Assuming you have intentionally abrogated your former assertion, I still don't consider the distinction to be simple. It is the context in which you apply "Christian nation" that makes it a complex matter. As you stated in your previous post, the term can have different meanings. The distinction may be resolved by assessing the definition first.
I don't know Plotinus, you have already asserted that Christian values have no definitive meaning. According to your assertion, having laws that reflect Christian values would be a meaningless proposition in itself. But doesn't the fact that you and I and countless others that have debated this topic suggest that making the distinction is not as clear cut as you think?
What I was trying to say was this. There are different meanings of "Christian nation" depending upon what criterion you're using. However,
whatever criterion you're using, it ought to be possible to distinguish between a Christian nation and a post-Christian nation, on the basis that the former currently meets the criterion, while the latter used to do so but doesn't any longer. I don't see anything problematic about that. One of the reasons why I don't think that appealing to "Christian values" as the criterion for Christian-ness is that on this view, there are currently
no post-Christian nations (because all the nations where Christianity is no longer dominant still adhere, more or less, to values that are deeply influenced by Christianity, and probably will continue to do so for a long time yet). But that seems to me to be a counter-intuitive result, because I think that it does make sense to distinguish between countries that are Christian and those that are post-Christian right now. The Catholic Church does, at any rate, and identifies the latter as the field for what John Paul II called the "second evangelisation": bringing Christianity back to areas that have mostly forgotten it. It seems to me that lumping the whole of Europe and America together as "Christian nations" simply in virtue of the fact that their values are influenced by Christianity, irrespective of whether their populations actually believe in Christianity or not, ignores the enormous differences in religious outlook between them.
I mean, this thread is supposed to be about whether there will be a religious resurgence in Europe. If you define "Christian nation" in such a way that all of Europe counts as Christian, doesn't that rather deflate the question?