Largest economy in the world in history?

naw leoreth portugal clearly discovered the amerikkkas in the 1410s
Yeah, I don't know how the brainwashing websites succeeded in spreading the notion that a Genovese in service of the Spanish crown could've discovered America.

It's pretty hilarious how you insert increasingly more K's into Amerika as you become more snarky, by the way :lol:
 
websites succeeded in spreading the notion that a Genovese in service of the Spanish crown could've discovered America.
I would note that Portugal made the right decision in turning down Columbus. He was utterly wrong and the Portuguese knew it.
 
Kind of.. Certianly when you have a lot of gold( no matter in which century) you are rich. It used to be an universal currency and still is. Throughout history many goods had a value near or even bigger than the gold(i.e. spices, salt, silk - varrying on the region and time) but gold is still the universal standart. So having a lot of gold generally means you are rich. And the advantage of gold to all other goods was/is that it is universas. Though not having much gold doesn't make you neccasery poor country, but you certainly have less trade oppertunities than the gold-rich ones.

I'd argue that gold is not that important in terms of defining how rich a country is. Certainly possessing gold means that you have the currency to buy other countries' goods, and more of them than you would without a large supply of gold. So you might see a reasonable increase in per-capita income in a country with more gold than its neighbors; on the other hand, basically every society before the modern period was terrible at controlling inflation. Large reserves of gold can actually cause inflation in a society, like in Spain after their American conquests. Consider that if the total output of an economy does not increase, an increase in currency (like gold) which devalue purchasing power. Too much money chasing too few goods means that those without gold lose out.

On the other hand, real per-capita increases in the total output of an economy means that it is visibly richer. Everyone in society (theoretically) has access to more goods at a cheaper cost than in the past. A single person's share of the economy comprises more goods and services before. So the formula for deciding what is the largest economy in the world at a given point in history means looking at per-capita output and the number of people in that society. Since China has been the largest (arguably) discrete society throughout most of history, and since their per-capita incomes have usually been equal to or greater than other societies, they have probably been the largest economy in history with the possible exception of states like the unified Roman Empire. When industrialization set in, rapid gains in per-capita output meant that the Europeans (probably the British Empire) outproduced China. But Portugal certainly never had a comparable total output to China in their history due to their miniscule population.
 
But Portugal certainly never had a comparable total output to China in their history due to their miniscule population.

Again, you keep your ranking rule in output production, we traded, why would we try to compete with China´s behemoth population, if we could buy ten time what we need for a single ounce of gold, what is good in Hard Work, if your hard work has virtually no real value? Don´t get me wrong, hard work is important, but using your brain to make that hard work actually mean something is equal as important.

China produced to internal consumption, they were a totally closed society when the portuguese arrived, China didn´t even traded with it´s richer neighbour Japan, they banned trade, a closed society is a doomed society, China´s output production from its vast population could be bought with a single cargo of portuguese goods several times, the need for external contact and external goods was so great that one of China´s most important harbor Macau was gifted to the portuguese in reward of chasing and defeating away pirates and rebel factions, and establishing of peace and trading.

So what good is a huge population for, if that entire population are all slaves of a failed system? A single portuguese merchant could buy all towns overnight, what was the output good for then?

China´s current economic system is working because it´s the worlds mixed economy, a capitalist enterprise aproach with some socialist traits, unfortanely it´s single party and unnatural birth control policies will take its price over time.

I´m not a fan of Alexander, but one of his sayings is right on the money: "I do not fear 1 million lions commanded by a sheep, however, if the enemy has 1 thousand sheep commanded by a lion, that is a force i will have to deal with extreme caution".
 
I'd argue that gold is not that important in terms of defining how rich a country is. Certainly possessing gold means that you have the currency to buy other countries' goods, and more of them than you would without a large supply of gold. So you might see a reasonable increase in per-capita income in a country with more gold than its neighbors; on the other hand, basically every society before the modern period was terrible at controlling inflation. Large reserves of gold can actually cause inflation in a society, like in Spain after their American conquests. Consider that if the total output of an economy does not increase, an increase in currency (like gold) which devalue purchasing power. Too much money chasing too few goods means that those without gold lose out.

On the other hand, real per-capita increases in the total output of an economy means that it is visibly richer. Everyone in society (theoretically) has access to more goods at a cheaper cost than in the past. A single person's share of the economy comprises more goods and services before. So the formula for deciding what is the largest economy in the world at a given point in history means looking at per-capita output and the number of people in that society. Since China has been the largest (arguably) discrete society throughout most of history, and since their per-capita incomes have usually been equal to or greater than other societies, they have probably been the largest economy in history with the possible exception of states like the unified Roman Empire. When industrialization set in, rapid gains in per-capita output meant that the Europeans (probably the British Empire) outproduced China. But Portugal certainly never had a comparable total output to China in their history due to their miniscule population.

I absouletely agree with this. I was reffering gold in the context of beeing rich (not having the biggest economy) With the american gold the Spanish payed the British industry to become the most powerful in the world ;)


Also i think that we should take acount of the percentage of the total world wealth/industrial output/recourse held by single country for a certain period of time.
 
Again, you keep your ranking rule in output production, we traded, why would we try to compete with China´s behemoth population, if we could buy ten time what we need for a single ounce of gold, what is good in Hard Work, if your hard work has virtually no real value? Don´t get me wrong, hard work is important, but using your brain to make that hard work actually mean something is equal as important.

China produced to internal consumption, they were a totally closed society when the portuguese arrived, China didn´t even traded with it´s richer neighbour Japan, they banned trade, a closed society is a doomed society, China´s output production from its vast population could be bought with a single cargo of portuguese goods several times, the need for external contact and external goods was so great that one of China´s most important harbor Macau was gifted to the portuguese in reward of chasing and defeating away pirates and rebel factions, and establishing of peace and trading.

So what good is a huge population for, if that entire population are all slaves of a failed system? A single portuguese merchant could buy all towns overnight, what was the output good for then?

China´s current economic system is working because it´s the worlds mixed economy, a capitalist enterprise aproach with some socialist traits, unfortanely it´s single party and unnatural birth control policies will take its price over time.

I´m not a fan of Alexander, but one of his sayings is right on the money: "I do not fear 1 million lions commanded by a sheep, however, if the enemy has 1 thousand sheep commanded by a lion, that is a force i will have to deal with extreme caution".

That's one of the reasons for the decline of both Spain and Portugal.
 
Also i think that we should take acount of the percentage of the total world wealth/industrial output/recourse held by single country for a certain period of time.

Well, the truth is that we can't measure that for ancient states. We even have trouble measuring it today.

And that is one of the reasons why why this thread is a perfect playground for nationalists. Though the sheer outrageousness of some claims have managed to surprise even me!
 
Kind of.. Certianly when you have a lot of gold( no matter in which century) you are rich. It used to be an universal currency and still is. Throughout history many goods had a value near or even bigger than the gold(i.e. spices, salt, silk - varrying on the region and time) but gold is still the universal standart. So having a lot of gold generally means you are rich. And the advantage of gold to all other goods was/is that it is universas. Though not having much gold doesn't make you neccasery poor country, but you certainly have less trade oppertunities than the gold-rich ones.

Uh, yeah. So the Chinese had valuable silk and other stuff that they traded for gold or silver with the Europeans. As such, even if the Chinese had nothing but whatever goods they produced to trade with, the fact that the goods were valuable meant that they could be converted into whatever universal medium of exchange desired. And... you were talking about not having a universal medium of exchange?
 
Well, the truth is that we can't measure that for ancient states. We even have trouble measuring it today.

And that is one of the reasons why why this thread is a perfect playground for nationalists. Though the sheer outrageousness of some claims have managed to surprise even me!
You must have come across this ridiculous Portuguese hypernationalism before. I have, and I'm not Portuguese like you. I've only seen it in the last two or three years, but I see it more and more. It's like they saw the Balkans, then decided they needed to get in on all that crazy.
 
Well, the truth is that we can't measure that for ancient states. We even have trouble measuring it today.

And that is one of the reasons why why this thread is a perfect playground for nationalists. Though the sheer outrageousness of some claims have managed to surprise even me!

:goodjob: Most of the threads like this (trying to find out an absolute truth about who was greatest/biggest/advanced) are just a place for some nationalist/trollers/spammers to chat.
 
Thank you, i trust (if they are not from 2010- ) that i might be able to find them :)

Any idea as to the Prussian question in the other thread?
The occupation of Rouen as a specialist question has not received a lot of attention. Hell, it took until the last ten years for anybody to start discussing relationships between German soldiers and French civilians in anything other than stereotyped terms (Mark Stoneman, "The Bavarian Army and French Civilians in the War of 1870-1871: A Cultural Interpretation", War in History 8 (2000)). Most accounts of the fighting in the north center on Faidherbe's duel with Manteuffel - Faidherbe's own work, Campagne de l'Armee du Nord en 1870-1871 and Hermann Graf Wartensleben's Feldzug 1871. Die Operationen der I. Armee unter General von Manteuffel would both probably be valuable. Problem is, both of those books were published in the 1870s.

You could also try Sir Michael Howard's general history of the war, The Franco-Prussian War (1961) on the grounds that its narrative of Faidherbe's campaign is more complete than most.
 
Uh, yeah. So the Chinese had valuable silk and other stuff that they traded for gold or silver with the Europeans. As such, even if the Chinese had nothing but whatever goods they produced to trade with, the fact that the goods were valuable meant that they could be converted into whatever universal medium of exchange desired. And... you were talking about not having a universal medium of exchange?

erm i don't quite understand you. All goods can be coverted into universal medium of exhcange(if they are in demand) but that doesn't make the goods themselves such medium. In simple words Portoguese/Spanish merchant could go to any point of the globe and buy different sorts of goods with their gold, while the chinese could not do this with their valuable goods.
So yeah seems gold was pretty immportant... At least thats how i see the things.
 
My point is that it's manifestly stupid to suggest that China was poor as long as it did not have much gold or silver or whatever, especially when those actually flowed into China due to trade.
 
The occupation of Rouen as a specialist question has not received a lot of attention. Hell, it took until the last ten years for anybody to start discussing relationships between German soldiers and French civilians in anything other than stereotyped terms (Mark Stoneman, "The Bavarian Army and French Civilians in the War of 1870-1871: A Cultural Interpretation", War in History 8 (2000)). Most accounts of the fighting in the north center on Faidherbe's duel with Manteuffel - Faidherbe's own work, Campagne de l'Armee du Nord en 1870-1871 and Hermann Graf Wartensleben's Feldzug 1871. Die Operationen der I. Armee unter General von Manteuffel would both probably be valuable. Problem is, both of those books were published in the 1870s.

You could also try Sir Michael Howard's general history of the war, The Franco-Prussian War (1961) on the grounds that its narrative of Faidherbe's campaign is more complete than most.

Thanks again :)
 
Stating the history facts about the XV and XVI is hiper nationalism? Hilarious. I´m not close minded, i respect everyone´s history, but it seems that whenever a non nowaday power horse trys to state his history, you just bash the comments away with absoluteley no reasoning.

Since nowadays, even portuguese are more european than portuguese, it doesn´t surprise me that innonimatu prefers to sing the union jack then to dig up a bit more on the history of his one country.

I´m not an ultra nationalist, i just read a lot, and trough reading i´v been able to refut many of the established history claims of some of the world´s nowadays powers. I advise reading some of the history recorded in old documents in Torre do Tombo, the national library of lisbon as many of them in digital support.

But just for the record, the key to Portugal´s current crisis and all future crisis, still resides in its former colonies and overseas trading and joint production, although in a diferent form, a cooperation or free trading spac, (our Braganças bloodline runied all achieved early by the Avis, they tretaed people like slaves and abandoned the trading cooperation and spreading of christianism that existed earlier and turned into an ugly form of imperialism exploiting people instead of common wealth opportunities), europe doens´t want you, it just wants your cheap labour, sunny beachs and good food at discount prices, you will come to see this in the next few years. You see, Portugal turned to the sea for a reason, and that same reason is still and even more valuable today...
 
My point is that it's manifestly stupid to suggest that China was poor as long as it did not have much gold or silver or whatever, especially when those actually flowed into China due to trade.
Quite.

1) China traded. Unlike Europe it might not have been a society basing itself on it, and where Confusianism didn't exactly condone merchants (low sort of people), but by golly did China trade.
We have tremendously interesting local Chinese archives of 16th and 17th c. Chinese customs officials were charting what were going in and out. (There is a by now classic customs official's PM on rhinoceros horn, aptly demonstrating the amazing range of Chinese expertise in differentiating between various African and Asian species. I.e. the Chinese were far from passive recipients of goods. They had significant expertise in differentiating between types of goods and quality where global trade was concerned.) And the volume of trade was huge.

2) China in the time period in question traded manufactured goods. That is a huge advantage. In modern terms it means a whopping trade surplus. They had the production capacity to provide for themselves, and sell a surplus to Europe, charging a mint for it too. One might as well slam the US in the 1950's as poor and backwards for being able to build whatever the hell it needed itself, and better than anyone else, selling their stuff to anyone, that is anyone who could afford it. That was China in the 16th and 17th cs.

3) So what we have is a situation where the Europeans, frantic to trade for Chinese goods, find that the only thing they have to offer for which there is actual demand in China is bullion. However, gold and silver is hard to find and even harder to get out of the ground. Not least if it's located on another continent, like South America.
But so desperate to trade are the Europeans, it doesn't matter. They mine, and conquer and build international trade networks like their life depended on it. And in some sense I guess it did.
This means as far as trade is concerned the Chinese are in such a position of strength, the Europeans were willing to jump through any amount of hoops, crisscrossing the world and making all the hard work, to scrape together enough precious metal to be allowed to exchange it for some of the Chinese produce.

4) That wasn't all bad for Europe of course. Mining is terribly complicated and expensive, but in itself tends to lead to break-throughs in chemical knowledge, better engineering (pumping technology being a major concern actually). And setting up a global system of trade was useful in the end. It's just that it was terribly expensive, risky, and in the end the human cost of it all was kind of huge. By the time a European trade got himself to China with enough Cadiz silver, he could rely on every ounce of it having cost a couple of Indians their lives in the mines at Potosi, etc. Still, the potential profits of this kind of trade is such that the Europeans are willing to run all the risks and invest all the capital. (And if necessary kill, maim and enslave as many people as it took in the process.)

5) And to spell it out: Profits were not made in China. If anything the Chinese profited hugely from the exchange of their goods for the gold and silver of the rest of the world, obligingly provided by the European traders.

The typical run for a European East Asia Company (I'm thinking of the Swedish one, as I happen to know it best), was to load up the ships with salable produce. Find a market for it, ideally directly in Cadiz, or at least make a trade for whatever would sell there. (As it happened Swedis tar, copper and ship timber sold quite well in Spain.)
At this point, if you're good and know your business, you could make a small profit on the exchange. It wasn't necessary though. The profit margin would be crap compared to what you were planning, and you might as well sell at a loss, considering the future deals in mind. The important part was to get as much silver (in Cadiz it was New World silver) as possible. Then you would be set to make the 30 month roundtrip to China (survival estimates being about 2 out of 3 to embark). Off you go to the mouth of the Pearl River.
When in China, you exchange your silver for as much of the local produce in high demand in Europe as possible: china, silk, laquerware etc. And it's the Chinese naming their price, in hard currency. At this point you, the European trader, is just buying at a direct loss. The profit is all Chinse. But just you wait...
Because, having made it back to Europe, you now arrive with a ship laden with the wealth of China, which the European markets just can't wait to gobble up. Profit margins from the sale of the cargo would typically be several hundred percent. Everyone gets rich. Well, everyone that survived. (Primarily that would be the company investors, who never had to go to China themselves, but anyway.)

The important bit to remember here, however, is that for the European trader the actual profitable bits of this complex exchange were ALL IN EUROPE. In China it was all Chinese profits, and with minimal risks and costs to the Chinese at that.

As a consequence, generations of (al)chemists in Europe kept beavering away at working out the process of making china, aka "the white gold". (Success in the 18th c.) There were any amount of attempts to acclimatise tea plants etc. in Europe, and every Tom, Dick and Harry going to China seems to have been tasked with working out how to make silk like the Chinese. (Plenty of industrial espionage going on directed at the Indian textile industry as well, not least by the French, since the Portugese had cornered the market on imported Indian dyed cotton fabrics.) Anything to be able to cut out the dangerous and expensive bits involved in trading with China. The situation held until the 19th c., when the British, having gained control of India, managed to hook China on Indian opium as a cheaper replacement for bullion.

And none of it was done because China was somehow poor. It was the opposite. Same with India, if perhaps to a lesser extent.

On top of that, this use of the gold and silver from the New World getting circulated to China still might have been the best use of it the Europeans found. Conventional wisdom would have it that having lots of gold and silver makes you rich. Perhaps, but only if you're the only one with it. If there is a sudden influx of lots of gold and silver, and everyone gets a piece of the action, the end result is inflation. Suddenly your gold and silver just doesn't buy as much as it used to. Very disconcerting, especially if you cannot work out why, and the reason the Emperor, with access to all the riches of the New World, ended up being constantly broke. A truly great power of the time, the Ottomans, also found themselves next to overwhelmed by it, and they weren't even in on the New World gambit.
 
China didn´t even traded with it´s richer neighbour Japan
Sure about that? For instance, how do you account for the parentage of Coxinga then?

(You might want to delve into your basis for asserting superior Japanese wealth at the time as well.)
 
x10 times the German war effort

am positive this is an honest mistake based on faulty interpretation of oral sources based on the 1943 communications of Japanese diplomats in the Iberian Peninsula that the war was already lost , because of the projected American expenditure .
 
5) And to spell it out: Profits were not made in China. If anything the Chinese profited hugely from the exchange of their goods for the gold and silver of the rest of the world, obligingly provided by the European traders.

The typical run for a European East Asia Company (I'm thinking of the Swedish one, as I happen to know it best), was to load up the ships with salable produce. Find a market for it, ideally directly in Cadiz, or at least make a trade for whatever would sell there. (As it happened Swedis tar, copper and ship timber sold quite well in Spain.)
At this point, if you're good and know your business, you could make a small profit on the exchange. It wasn't necessary though. The profit margin would be crap compared to what you were planning, and you might as well sell at a loss, considering the future deals in mind. The important part was to get as much silver (in Cadiz it was New World silver) as possible. Then you would be set to make the 30 month roundtrip to China (survival estimates being about 2 out of 3 to embark). Off you go to the mouth of the Pearl River.
When in China, you exchange your silver for as much of the local produce in high demand in Europe as possible: china, silk, laquerware etc. And it's the Chinese naming their price, in hard currency. At this point you, the European trader, is just buying at a direct loss. The profit is all Chinse. But just you wait...
Because, having made it back to Europe, you now arrive with a ship laden with the wealth of China, which the European markets just can't wait to gobble up. Profit margins from the sale of the cargo would typically be several hundred percent. Everyone gets rich. Well, everyone that survived. (Primarily that would be the company investors, who never had to go to China themselves, but anyway.)

The important bit to remember here, however, is that for the European trader the actual profitable bits of this complex exchange were ALL IN EUROPE. In China it was all Chinese profits, and with minimal risks and costs to the Chinese at that.

Heh, all this reminds me of Uncharted Waters 2: New Horizons. Awesome game, that was.
 
Back
Top Bottom