Let's discuss Mathematics

Do big numbers exist?

Apparently Ultrafinitists believe big numbers like 10^100 do not exist, and the fact that our maths goes all the way up to infinity is why we have such problems with quantum physics and/or gravity. I do not understand it at all, and neither does Sabine Hossenfelder in the below video.
Spoiler Youtube :
 
I will eventually look at the video, but Sabine has a rather bad reputation for taking contrarian views deliberately. Infinity clearly exists and is formally manipulable as a notion, and while it may (?) not be a cosmic reality (which matters when your subject is in the realm of science), it still wouldn't make sense to take it out of math.
By the way, it was a huge struggle to bring it into math. And I don't mean something as late as Cantor, but Archimedes, who for years had to hide his method (Archimedian proto-calculus).
 
Do big numbers exist?

Apparently Ultrafinitists believe big numbers like 10^100 do not exist, and the fact that our maths goes all the way up to infinity is why we have such problems with quantum physics and/or gravity. I do not understand it at all, and neither does Sabine Hossenfelder in the below video.
Spoiler Youtube :

I watch a few of Hossenfelder's videos each week. Most are interesting, but many months ago she came out with one about a study on consciousness that made it clear that she does not understand in the least the essence of the "hard problem of consciousness."

As for the ultrafinitist position, it's only shot at coherence seems to reside within a universe of discourse that is restricted to the physical realm. The problems plaguing the foundations of physics these days are the responsibility of physicists, and should not be passed on to the mathematicians. 10^100 certainly exists, otherwise there must exist an integer that, when 1 is added to it, results in something that is not an integer. Obvious twaddle.

Physicists' relationship with mathematics is problematic in my view. Though I have a PhD in mathematics, I find the way physicists "do" mathematics to be very difficult to follow. Part of it is extremely antiquated notations: physicists do not modernize their notations except in niche areas, which makes their work inscrutable to experts outside their little bubble who might otherwise be able to identify their errors. This traces to the very beginning of a physicists' education. Take a look at a calculus textbook and compare it to a basic physics textbook. Look at the hand-wavey, non-rigorous way the physics book uses "differentials" that dates back to the way analysis was done in the 1700s or earlier, and which ultimately precipitated a crisis in calculus-based mathematics that didn't get set right until the mid-1800s. You'll also likely note that the physics textbook does not even bother to explain, in a chapter 0 or an appendix, precisely how one is to treat a differential like dx or dy for purposes of proving anything logically. So, dx is just a "very tiny distance," or whatnot. But it's not until a physics student finally progresses to a relativity theory course as a senior undergrad that the real trauma occurs: differentials are used all over, but now they are the differentials of grown-up differential manifold theory, which possess a ton of underlying machinery and delicate nuances. Does the relativity textbook unpack this? No! After all, hasn't the physics student been using differentials since their Physics 101 days? And yet a whole week might be devoted to learning about Einstein summation notation, which is not really that clever.

I will agree with Hossenfelder, though, when she muses that the singularities and infinities that arise in physics (such as relativity theory) may have something to do with using continuous mathematical models to describe an apparently discrete physical reality. The way physicists "do" mathematics needs a close examination and thoroughgoing revision, but old habits die hard.

As for the reason why reality appears to be discrete in nature, well, that's entirely due to the "maximum resolution" of our senses, whether aided by instrumentation or not. After all, our instruments and measuring apparatus are also things we only experience with our senses. Being a metaphysical idealist, Ultimate Reality is, in my view, entirely mental in nature, and we are all "psychological alters" of a single experiencing subject that unfolds and acts instinctively rather like Arthur Schopenhauer's "will."
 
Last edited:
What is the definition of simplest form when it comes to Algebraic Fractions?

I have googled, and most definitions seem circular to me (eg. "In mathematics, the simplest form refers to the most reduced or simplified representation of a fraction.") This site is better than most, and says "In mathematical algebra, the simplest form is the least attainable fraction of a number or a linear equation." but I do no know the strict definition of attainable.

They give an example, but it just leaves me less sure. They say simplify this:


And the answer is:

VkBIHN5.png


But I do not understand how the simplest form can have an expression that can be further factorised on the top and an expression with brackets on the bottom. Depending on the definition of simple, surely the answer has to be one of these:

I'd say that a rational expression (or "algebraic fraction," though I see that as a more general term) is in simplest form when the numerator and denominator have no common zeros (or no factors in common). Since the last two forms have a numerator with zeros 0 and -2, and a denominator with zero -1, either could be said to be in simplest form.
 
What is the definition of simplest form when it comes to Algebraic Fractions?

I have googled, and most definitions seem circular to me (eg. "In mathematics, the simplest form refers to the most reduced or simplified representation of a fraction.") This site is better than most, and says "In mathematical algebra, the simplest form is the least attainable fraction of a number or a linear equation." but I do no know the strict definition of attainable.

They give an example, but it just leaves me less sure. They say simplify this:


And the answer is:

VkBIHN5.png


But I do not understand how the simplest form can have an expression that can be further factorised on the top and an expression with brackets on the bottom. Depending on the definition of simple, surely the answer has to be one of these:

Looking around, it seems this link is the most pertinent here:

I note the article is rather vague about whether or not to leave the numerator or denominator factored. Having taught basic algebra many times in the past, it seems the consensus among textbooks is that it doesn't matter (I would accept either of the final expressions above). That is, it doesn't matter until Little Johnny encounters a standardized multiple-choice exam created by a committee of individuals committed to a particular dogma!
 
Hey guys, I wish to ask if there is any loss in generality or some other fault with my own answer to a problem (highschool math, geometry). What follows is (first) the book's answer, and then mine. They are similar, but crucially the book sets an entirely stable segment (the triangle's height from A) as the linked stable property, while I chose a nominally variable - but defined and confined otherwise - (the base of the triangle formed by two arbitrary Ms as midpoints of the other sides). Both answers rest on the same two theorems. Thanks for any help :)

1762442765305.png

(don't mind the shading, it means nothing and is an artifact)
 
Last edited:
Back
Top Bottom