Linkman226
#anarchy
- Joined
- Sep 14, 2007
- Messages
- 2,493
A theological question.
The Bible says:
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
But this implies God predestined Jesus' death. Wouldn't that be contrary to the Christian doctrine of free will? Did God force Pontius Pilates' hand? And Judas' too? What's more, Jesus knew that Judas would betray him. Did Jesus/ his Dad 'make' Judas betray him?
Or more generally, are the concepts of free will and an omniscient creator compatible? And since omniscience implies predestination, can God be omnipotent if he can't change what is predestined?
The Bible says:
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
But this implies God predestined Jesus' death. Wouldn't that be contrary to the Christian doctrine of free will? Did God force Pontius Pilates' hand? And Judas' too? What's more, Jesus knew that Judas would betray him. Did Jesus/ his Dad 'make' Judas betray him?
Or more generally, are the concepts of free will and an omniscient creator compatible? And since omniscience implies predestination, can God be omnipotent if he can't change what is predestined?