Aphex_Twin
Evergreen
- Joined
- Sep 7, 2002
- Messages
- 7,474
I see the issue of underlying principles is generally avoides in these arguments. Debates can be long and winding without even reaching the cause, crux of things. I think the one thing that can sum up the diferences between Communism and Capitalism is one thing - rent.
Rent is the right to receive goods in exchange for temporary rights on a piece of property. That is, the owner of a piece of property can receive goods (the products of labour of other people) for "doing nothing" (in apparence). Is this immoral?
To present an example:
A man builds a large house for his family. Say he does the labour himself and aquires the materials from nature. After this his family can live in better conditions than before. Now, another man comes into the picture. He is without home, nor can he build a home for himself. Say the initial family can spare a room from the large house to serve the man's need for shelter. Is the family immoral if it desires a service of some sort in exchange for abandoning one room? Say still that the family is made up of a husband and wife and 5 children. That the house has 8 rooms (a livingroom, a diningroom, a dormitory for the parents and one room for each child). Two children, the smallest, can probably share a room and let the man inhabit the room made avalible. Now, obviously, there is something the family cannot do if they let the man live in that room - it cannot make use of it anymore. Additionally, the labour spent by the head of the family will have been not for the benefit of his family, but rather the benefit of the man. Shouldn't then the man, who receives the benefit of shelter provide something in return?
Say still that the family will move out (it has found fortune of some sort) and that the man receives the whole house as a gift. It is their desire that he benefit from it as he sees fit. Should they be allowed to grant such a right? Do they even have a right to dispose of their labour (the house) in a way they see fit?
Rent is the right to receive goods in exchange for temporary rights on a piece of property. That is, the owner of a piece of property can receive goods (the products of labour of other people) for "doing nothing" (in apparence). Is this immoral?
To present an example:
A man builds a large house for his family. Say he does the labour himself and aquires the materials from nature. After this his family can live in better conditions than before. Now, another man comes into the picture. He is without home, nor can he build a home for himself. Say the initial family can spare a room from the large house to serve the man's need for shelter. Is the family immoral if it desires a service of some sort in exchange for abandoning one room? Say still that the family is made up of a husband and wife and 5 children. That the house has 8 rooms (a livingroom, a diningroom, a dormitory for the parents and one room for each child). Two children, the smallest, can probably share a room and let the man inhabit the room made avalible. Now, obviously, there is something the family cannot do if they let the man live in that room - it cannot make use of it anymore. Additionally, the labour spent by the head of the family will have been not for the benefit of his family, but rather the benefit of the man. Shouldn't then the man, who receives the benefit of shelter provide something in return?
Say still that the family will move out (it has found fortune of some sort) and that the man receives the whole house as a gift. It is their desire that he benefit from it as he sees fit. Should they be allowed to grant such a right? Do they even have a right to dispose of their labour (the house) in a way they see fit?