If it was about slavery, why did anti-slavery Europe take the South's side? Break up of the Union? Maybe... But I think Candle has it right more or less, slavery became the issue once war broke out but money - follow the money - was the motive. How could Lincoln announce a draft so the North could force the South to pay higher taxes because northern manufacturers hated competing with Europe for ag products? Try selling that to the masses...Back in the 1820's the South saw a secessionist movement when slavery was entrenched. It was over export taxes and it was Charleston SC leading the way. Thats not a coincidence, trade with Europe was the money issue driving taxes and secession.
I'm pretty sure it was.yeah I don't think slavery was the #1 reason for the civil war.
Also, no "I am from Latin America I'm American waaah" business, please.
You're hilarious.I am from Latin America therefore I am American.
"Europe" didn't take any sides in the American Civil War.If it was about slavery, why did anti-slavery Europe take the South's side?
That's the scariest thing you have posted so far. I hope you didn't commit any more crimes while you were over there.I just got back from Iraq...
I am from Latin America therefore I am American.
and as an American do you believe secession is an inherent right?
"Europe" didn't take any sides in the American Civil War.
I don't see why people who don't even like Texas should fight to keep them in the Union.
Secession seems like a damn fine right to me. I sure wish my state could secede from my american nation.
sure they did, they were trading finished products for southern ag products and the Congress did the bidding of northern manufacturers and hit both the South and Europe with higher taxes. That would anger anyone... England came close to actual financial and military help but the Northern blockade told Europe to stay out of it.
America was founded on the inherent right of secession, now its called treason![]()
So, according to you:sure they did, they were trading finished products for southern ag products and the Congress did the bidding of northern manufacturers and hit both the South and Europe with higher taxes. That would anger anyone... England came close to actual financial and military help but the Northern blockade told Europe to stay out of it.
If it was about slavery, why did anti-slavery Europe take the South's side? Break up of the Union?
slavery became the issue once war broke out but money - follow the money - was the motive. How could Lincoln announce a draft so the North could force the South to pay higher taxes because northern manufacturers hated competing with Europe for ag products? Try selling that to the masses...![]()
Back in the 1820's the South saw a secessionist movement when slavery was entrenched. It was over export taxes and it was Charleston SC leading the way. Thats not a coincidence, trade with Europe was the money issue driving taxes and secession.
No America was founded on the right to have a say in their government. In the Revolutionary War every legal avenue was exhausted, and the people were still not permitted representation. In the Civil War they couldn't be bothered to follow the law while they had full representation.
The US Revolutionary War and Civil War are in no way comparable.
The Declaration of Independence is the Founding Fathers argument for secession - not having a say in govt. Did they give the vote to slaves, Indians, women, and non-property holders? The law was corrupt, the Constitution "assumes" Congress will act as a referee and stay neutral, not impose taxes on certain groups to coerce them into selling northern manufacturers their goods. Trade wars under the Articles of Confederation is the reason Congress was given trade powers, now Congress was engaging in trade wars. Apparently something similar happened in the 1820s because Charleston SC led a secessionist movement back then and it was tied to trade and taxes. Were the Founding Fathers calling them traitors? Some were still alive...
But more to the point: why does an agreement made by a group of people 200 years ago morally obligate you and me to maintain that agreement? Do we not have the moral authority to decide for ourselves without the label of traitor? Traitor to what? A union you had no voice in forming? Thats like calling the baptized traitors for leaving the Catholic Church.
So, according to you:
- NOT participating in the war in alliance with the rebels
[*]NOT impeding the Federal blockade that made any trade agreements they signed with the traitor states essentially null and void, not even so much as protesting its imposition
[*]NOT so much as according official recognition to the Confederacy (you will note that the Roebuck motion was totally shot down in Parliament)
[*]NOT permitting the sale of advanced British ironclad warships to the traitor navy
[*]NOT even so much as suggesting that the Great Powers of Europe do anything pro-Confederacy other than propose a ceasefire - a move that was even so REJECTED - in the Drouyn de Lhuys notes of October 30, 1862
[*]NOT providing assistance to the isolated Confederate forces in Texas from French-controlled Mexico, anywhere from small arms to foodstuffs to communications to troops
[*]NOT agreeing to the Preston suggestion of winter 1864 for a Franco-Mexican-Confederate military alliance
[*]REDUCING reliance on agricultural products from the traitor states by diversifying into Indian and Egyptian cotton and other cash crops
constitute "taking the South's side". So, basically, you're delusional.