I understand it doesn't apply to Sweden, but look at Reynolds v. US. The government is under no obligation to respect religous beliefs if it conflicts with a law. (Case upheld the banning of polygamy)
You always quote that. The thing is, you seem to be using that to suggest that religious freedom is irrelevant and the law can be made to restrict religious freedom? Why do you think this?
I think the whole point of Reynolds VS US was to ban polygamy because the government cannot be compelled to recognize marriage by a religious group. And obviously, if my religion mandated murder, I couldn't do it. But why do you suggest forcing religious organizations to do things like hire gay people in the organization if they don't wish too? Or are you just playing Devil's Advocate?