lovett
Deity
- Joined
- Sep 21, 2007
- Messages
- 2,570
That's not a trend. That's two: decriminalization reducing drug use and decriminalization having no effect. You have no right to mash the two together. But if you wanna do stupid statistical crap, I can't stop you.
The best I can conclude from the above, combined with everything else I already know, is that (gee, I already said this!) decriminalization has different effects in different places.
Actually, no. It's the trend {Usage does not increase}. Your arguing usage will increase. It hasn't elsewhere. You argue this is because differentcountries react differently. Usage not increasing is a phenomena seen in a variety of different countries. You argue, what? American exceptionalism?
On a related note, This is an interesting study which sheds light on how similiar American patterns of drug use are to those elsewhere. It compares Amsterdam With San Fransisco.
Highlights include:
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The mean age at onset of use was 16.95 years in Amsterdam and 16.43 years in San Francisco
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The mean age at which respondents began using marijuana more than once per month was 19.11 years in Amsterdam and 18.81 years in San Francisco.
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In both cities, users began their periods of maximum use about 2 years after they began regular use: 21.46 years in Amsterdam and 21.98 years in San Francisco.
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About 75 percent in both cities had used cannabis less than once per week or not at all in the year before the interview.
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Majorities of experienced users in both cities never used marijuana daily or in large amounts even during their periods of peak use, and use declined after those peak periods.
These two cities were chosen because of their similiarity:
San Francisco was selected as the US comparison city not because its representative of the United States but because it is the US city most comparable to Amsterdam. Both cities are large, highly urbanized port cities with diverse populations of slightly more than 700,000. They are financial and entertainment hubs for larger regional conurbations, and they have long been perceived within their home countries as cosmopolitan, politically liberal, and culturally tolerant.
The main difference then, as concerns patterns of drug use, is drug law. It doesn't really seem to be having an affect.
On a side not, let's accept the whole 'America is different' arguement. Would you accept that British statistics can be used in, say, Britain - to guide policy?