North King
blech
- Joined
- Jan 2, 2004
- Messages
- 18,165
However, personal mindsets tend to be extremelly diverse.
Not especially. People like to think they are different, but in reality, most mindsets exist within a very narrow spectrum.
However, personal mindsets tend to be extremelly diverse.
they simply appealed to different subsets of the population
Both of them were constructed by people with roughly the same frame of mind (specifically, Romanized Middle Eastern thought).
Christianity appealed to a more significant one, however (at least numerically). Mithraism was tied more closely to the Roman army, which itself was in a state of decline.
Not at all. One was crafted by semi-Hellenised Jewish thought, another was crafted by traditional Persian thought. And THEN both underwent Romanisation.
I'm fairly sure Judea of that time was fully Hellenized, and more than a little Roman.
And Persian thought isn't very different from Roman thought in underlying concepts.
I wouldn't call it all the Hellenized; it was still primarily Jewish, and the Greek influences were quite limited (a comparison with 18th century Russia may be in order, considering the similar superficiality and incompleteness of the Westernisation; it only really influenced the upper classes, and even then only to a limited extent).
*blink*
There are some similarities naturally, and ofcourse one can claim that all human "thoughts" are very similar really, and would even be right... But the whole point of studying cultures and societies is making comparisons and realising the differences. And the differences between Persia and Rome were greater than even differences between Rome and Greece, which in turn were greater than the differences between Rome and the Etruscans - themselves greater than the differences between Rome and the Latin peoples. Can we agree on that much at least?
I really don't want to explain to you of all people that the Mediterranean and the eastern parts of the Middle East are indeed quite different geographically, and thus socially, and thus culturally. I hope also that we will agree that either geography, either society, either culture - or maybe even all three! - do indeed have some measure of influence on what you have reffered to as "thought" or "mindset", and that though the differences of mindsets might be considered infinitely small or infinitely great they still exist and are dictated by the differences in one or all of the aforementioned three elements.
Odd would the Romans really accept a barbarian on their throne like that?
They spoke Greek.
However, Middle Eastern thought is actually relatively quite similar to Western thought as compared with, say, Indian, or Chinese thought.
At the start of what no one would ever call 439
Ratiaria[1]
Serdica.[1]
[1]Sofia
Oktar left behind him three sons, all of which claimed their dead father’s throne.
Of course, Maximinus Thrax was the first one in 235, but certainly not the last.
Of course, the three sons of Constantine fighting each other was only because of religious differences, it had nothing at all to do with personal ambition. And Magnentius’ revolt against Constans and later fight against Constantius II was popular because of Magnentius' non-Arian beliefs, except oh wait, Constans wasn’t Arian either. And then when Magnentius was defeated by Constantius II at Battle of Mursa Major which resulted in about 54,000 men that didn’t in any way reduce the ability of the Roman Empire to withstand future invasions. And then there was Silvanus’ “coup” which resulted from his enemies at court faking a letter which made him seem as if he were attempting to win support in Rome. And lets not forget Julian’s own rebellion which started when some of his troops revolted at Constantius’ command to transfer elements of his Gallic army, which were busy fighting off the Franks to the east where Constantius was fighting the Sassanids.
No, it wouldn’t parallel OTL until Constantine for several reasons
1) It is possible (and is one of the many unnamed departures in my timeline) that Nero, without Christians to blame, would actually have received blame for the burning of Rome (as he had before he made Christians a scapegoat) and a revolt happen much earlier than 68 CE, which would change who became emperor later. You may respond he would just find another scapegoat, but who? One of the reasons Nero’s propaganda was believed was because, as Tacitus records, Christians practiced abominations and were haters of humankind (Annals 15.44). Jews? If so that might have sparked the Jewish revolt two years earlier, which would have profound effects on the Empire if it effects either Vespasian or Titus.
2) It’s effects on Judaism, chiefly the Jewish War, as I’ve previously laid out both in point one and elsewhere (and was half-heartedly argued against by das).
3) Plain old butterfly effect
Well, the educated ones did, ofcourse. Not sure if Jesus spoke Greek, but I doubt that it was his first language. Still, point taken.
Yes, you're probably better off not mentioning dates at all if you will stretch them out like that from now on.![]()
Of these, Serdica seems to be indeed Sofia, whereas Ratiaria is a different Bulgarian town (Archar). Was that the footnote that you initially wanted to make for Ratiaria?
Aside from that, well written as usual, and quite an epic read. Oktar's reign in the East is a bit awkward; the Caesars had accepted it a bit too quickly and easily, and I'd imagine that the Huns too were disappointed if they didn't get to loot any city at all (whereas that was their initial motivation for the invasions). Oktar seems to be much more eccentric than Attila, in general.
You know, I suspect that the eastern legions if not the Caesars will take action against them pretty fast.
So, what now? Fragmentation?
EDIT:
But that's a bit different, isn't it? Maximinus was, after all, a Roman soldier, and born in a Roman province. The Huns were complete newcomers, however.
During, not before, Constantius II's reign. In any case, there were numerous Roman officials (palace officials, Senators, minor generals, other men of reasonable power) who defected to Constantius's brothers and later to his enemies because Constantius was busy persecuting Nicaean Christians like themselves.
Pfft. Nero would have found some other obscure cult group to blame. The Christians were hardly unique in the period; there were even groups that actually did sacrifice children (like the survivors of the Phoenician/Carthaginian religion).
The effects of the Jewish war would not have been particularly far-reaching; while the Jews might have been better at organization, ultimately they couldn't have held out for more than few years longer against the Romans anyway.
Your argument is very compelling.
So...next comes fragmentation? Hm...I think that would be a good time period to start perhaps?
there were even groups that actually did sacrifice children
Huns were compensated by the "back taxes" that the Caesars paid Oktar that they failed to pay him during the reign of the "psuedo" Leo II, as well as more personal gifts given as a show of "support" and adoration to the new Augustus.
It's an argument from pure statistics, take all the martyrs and keep them alive, keep all those who gave away their riches to the poor rich, keep those who were disinherited from their families or disinherited themselves, kill off all those who were saved by Christian charity
Aye, so it would seem. The best NES setting is the one that allows NESers the most freedom, and the immediate aftermath of an intense conflict (such as the Oktarian Campaigns) is usaully a great time to begin a NES in.
Then again, Strategos might want to follow this further, for greater changes (perhaps some in the east as well; Persia was no doubt affected at least to a limited degree). Plus I think he had some plans for the Arabs as well.
But what about the other Huns? Or did Oktar simply pay them some salaries?
The problem with that argument is that many of those martyrs could have been martyred for a different cause, and so on. Still, its far from predetermined, and the butterfly effect would probably have been prominent enough, at least regionally (and ofcourse in combination with the other changes that you had mentioned).
Weren't there some obscure fringe heretical Christian cults that did? Or at least did something similarily unconventional.
The vast majority of Judeans did not speak Greek, they spoke only Aramaic or Aramaic and Hebrew. Only the upper class among the political leadership, a tiny amount of the religious leadership, and some of the merchant leadership would have spoken Greek. Oh, and the main reason Jesus sold so well was that he didn't speek Greek, he was one of the common men. Later, Christianity became popular among the Gentiles because of Paul, who came from an extraordinarily wealthy Jewish family from Anatolia, who had attended a Gymnasium where he learned Greek language, culture, philosophy, and theology. He addapted this to the basically Jewish religion of Christianity, and thus European society was born.They spoke Greek. Hence why Jesus sold so well.![]()
Only some of the educated. Except for those among the nobility, Jews did not go to the Gymnasiums and only to Yeshivas, were they learned Halakha (Jewish Law) and Hebrew, but not Greek. And the educated, in general, only consisted of a miniscule portion of the populace. Jesus, the poor son of a carpenter, most definately DID NOT speak Greek, only Aramaic and Hebrew. And, as my statements point out, the point should not be taken.Well, the educated ones did, ofcourse. Not sure if Jesus spoke Greek, but I doubt that it was his first language. Still, point taken.
Aramaic was definately the first language of the common people, with the execption of a few people who learned Hebrew or a related Semitic language first. If he had any learning at all, it would have been from the Yeshiva, which means he would have learned Hebrew, but never, ever would he have recieved a Gymnasium education learning Greek and/or Latin.Aramaic was (most likely) his first language and the primary language of the common people of Palestine. If he received any education, he probably also learned Hebrew (to read the Bible), Greek, and maybe Latin.
Correct, although Judea was even less penetrated. The native leadership, even when serving as pupets to the Romans, never adopted Greek habits, they may have learned the Greek language, but that was in general the furthest extent of their hellenization. Likewise, neither did the religious leadership. The only people that really adapte any form of Greek culture were the upper classes of the merchants.I wouldn't call it all the Hellenized; it was still primarily Jewish, and the Greek influences were quite limited (a comparison with 18th century Russia may be in order, considering the similar superficiality and incompleteness of the Westernisation; it only really influenced the upper classes, and even then only to a limited extent).