thomas.berubeg said:
Most witch burnings happened not in the middle ages, but rather in the Renaissance, in the 1600s.
Also, during the middle ages, women were much freer than they later were in the renaissance... they were allowed to own property, have thier own professions, etc. it is only in the renaissance that stricter roles for women were enforced and insisted upon.
Exactly - that's why I put in the "Middle Ages" bit as part of the myth. In fact, witches officially didn't even exist in the Middle Ages, because the church denied the possibility of magic at all. It was only with the redefinition of witches as satanists in the Renaissance that conceptual space was made for accepting their existence in the first place.
That attitude did not (re)appear until the middle ages with theologians like Thomas Aquinas. For much of the intervening period, Christianity was openly hostile to science because it viewed it as tantamount to paganism. Even though this is undeserved, Christianity lumped philosophers, scientists, and pagan religion all into the same heap. Faith in God was seen as all that is necessary and any deviation from that was viewed as dangerous. Augustine of Hippo is a rare example of allowing reason to influence religion.
But Augustine was hardly the only rational Christian philosopher of antiquity. Obvious other examples include Justin Martyr, Clement of Alexandria, Origen, Ambrose of Milan, Basil of Caesarea, Gregory of Nyssa, and many others. Augustine is just the most famous, and indeed he took some of his best ideas from the other figures mentioned. The thought of Marius Victorinus, for example, is much more philosophically sophisticated and difficult than that of Augustine (which is why he was read only by specialists even in his day, and remains little-known now). I'm sure you know that one of the first things Augustine did after becoming a Christian was to form a sort of Christian version of Plato's Academy and retire there, with the aim of spending the rest of his life in philosophical contemplation. Why did he do that? Because, by his day, the ancient philosophical ideals had become perfectly wedded to Christian thought. This was the work of Christian thinkers
before Augustine, particularly the Cappadocians and the nascent monastic figures in Egypt influenced by them. For example, Gregory of Nazianzus used the word
philosophia as a technical term for Christian contemplation of God. Evagrius Ponticus used the word
theoria (which Aristotle had used to mean leisurely rational contemplation) to refer to the state achieved by a Christian monk through discipline and rational study, in which he could hope to encounter God. Augustine was just part of that tradition, not some amazing one-of-a-kind rationalist in an age of anti-intellectualism. And he was moderate compared to some of them - the Origenist tradition, especially after Evagrius, was far more rationalist and intellectualist (they believed that God is a mind, and that human beings are really minds, which means that coming closer to God is a matter of
learning more).
And it is false to suggest that rational theology then disappeared and didn't reappear until the thirteenth century. What of Isidore of Seville, John of Damascus, Faustus of Riez, Alcuin of York, Eriugena, Agobard of Lyon, Anselm of Canterbury, Anselm of Laon, Adelard of Bath, Peter Abelard, etc etc etc...? These people were all perfectly rational and logical (and some, such as Agobard and Adelard, were far more "rationalist" than either Augustine or Aquinas). I don't believe that anyone could be aware of the work of, say, Leontius of Byzantium or Rabanus Maurus and claim that logic and reason had no place in theology in the period between Augustine and Aquinas.
These people weren't hostile to "science" - it would be far more accurate to say that science was hardly done at all during this whole period, and didn't really impinge upon their consciousness at all. The reasons why there wasn't much science to speak of then are various, not least the fact that the scientific method simply hadn't been developed, but I see no reason to list supposed hostility from the church as one of them.
I should note that this hostility to science was not present in Islam, and explains why the Muslim world was far ahead technologically to the Christian for a long time. It is not that the Muslims necessarily invented new things. Mostly they just translated ancient Roman and Greek text that was likewise available to the Christians, and simply reused that knowledge.
In fact, the classical texts available to the Muslims, such as the writings of Aristotle and Galen, were mostly translated by Persian Christians, not by Muslims at all. In any case, if the Muslim world was technologically ahead of the Christian world during this period, I don't think this had anything to do with familiarity with ancient texts, because
technology was not transmitted in texts but through practice. For example, people knew about windmills not by reading about them in books but because there were actual windmills dotted around the place, having been developed by the Romans in late imperial times.