History questions not worth their own thread II

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So I'm reading an article by Moravscik about the often alleged democratic deficit in the European Union, and he says there isn't one. However he says that the ECB is too independent and that;



What is he referring to? Its probably quite obvious but I am an historical innocent so there you go.
He's probably making a shockingly bad and inaccurate Depression analogy. The banks loaned money irresponsibly, leading to a crash. Sound depressingly (zing!) familiar?

Of course, there was considerably more to the Great Depression than that, making me think that this guy either doesn't know what he's talking about in the slightest, or I'm way off. With my trademark arrogance, I will simply assume that I am correct in all things.
 
Why is it that Belarusian nationalism never caught on? The simple answer would be effective repression on behalf of the Romanovs and Soviets, though the contrast with, say, the Ukraine or Armenia is rather striking.
 
Why didn't the Dutch partake in the Scramble for Africa?
 
Why didn't the Dutch partake in the Scramble for Africa?

I think they were happy with the substantial revenue that was coming from the East Indies, and so, given that they were already doing well, and had a stable colonial empire, there was no real motivation for them to partake.

I don't suppose they wanted to antagonise the British, French, or Germans, either.
 
Unlike Belgium the Dutch never had a colonial interest in Africa; South Africa was lost to the British long before the 'scramble for Africa' began. Not to mention the Dutch imperial days had been over since the end of the 17th century; they simply weren't a potential imperialistic power (the colonization of Indonesia was only completed around 1900, some 45 years before independence).

:rotfl: This deserves its own thread as an argument, so I will content myself with saying merely that you are wrong.

Interesting argument. O wait, there isn't one...

Command economy does not ignore demand, it simply lacks ability to adequately react to it.
Final result is the same, however.

When I say command economy ignores demand, I am ofcourse talking about demand as an political-economic factor. One of the main reasons for the existence of a black economy in so-called command economies is, IMO, precisley the lack of understanding of demand in economic questions. Command economy economy doesn't work simply because you cannot command economy. There are, as marxian theory itself proclaims, other factors at work that steer politics and economy.

We should have just left it at 'ignores demand' :lol: :lol: :lol:

Indeed.
 
Why is it that Belarusian nationalism never caught on? The simple answer would be effective repression on behalf of the Romanovs and Soviets, though the contrast with, say, the Ukraine or Armenia is rather striking.
Because the concept of Balarus was a very new concept at the time. The Germans for example, talked about litterally discovering Bellarus. (I remember in German class we had a student from Bellarus, and we tried to figure out how to translate it. We came up with 'Weissrussland, Weissruthenien, Byelorussia', and a few others) Census taking by the German Army was havoc because most people didn't identify by nationality at the time. When asked for their "nation" many people would give their religion, their town or their surname. Most of the population spoke another language, very often even in their own house.
The problem was further muddied by Polish nationalists claiming that Byellorusian was simply a dialect of Polish, so anyone inclined towards education and nationalist thought would be influence by these (and pan-slav) ideas which would further diminish it's potency. The Catholic Church in Belarus particularly encouraged the former thought, much prefering to be part of a Catholic Poland then an Orthodox Russia or Belarus.
 
Why the seven prince-electors as defined by Charles the IV in the Golden Bull were who they were (archchancellors of Mainz, Trier and Cologne, rulers of Bohemia, Palsgrave, Saxony and Brandenbug)? If they were the most influential of the German rulers, why, for example, the duke of Bavaria was not included? Was it completely arbitrary or what?
 
Why the seven prince-electors as defined by Charles the IV in the Golden Bull were who they were (archchancellors of Mainz, Trier and Cologne, rulers of Bohemia, Palsgrave, Saxony and Brandenbug)? If they were the most influential of the German rulers, why, for example, the duke of Bavaria was not included? Was it completely arbitrary or what?

Why exactly would Charles want to give so much power to the House of Wittelsbach (the dynasty of Bavaria)?
 
Why exactly would Charles want to give so much power to the House of Wittelsbach (the dynasty of Bavaria)?

So, basically, he selected those that were high-standing enough to be deserving of the title and friendly to him or not powerful enough to threaten him, right? Was there any formal justification?
 
So, basically, he selected those that were high-standing enough to be deserving of the title and friendly to him or not powerful enough to threaten him, right? Was there any formal justification?

He was simply codifying what was the norm at the time; there was no reason for him to grant Bavaria an electoral vote.
 
Okay, another question then. How come these rulers being electors became the norm?
 
Why the seven prince-electors as defined by Charles the IV in the Golden Bull were who they were (archchancellors of Mainz, Trier and Cologne, rulers of Bohemia, Palsgrave, Saxony and Brandenbug)? If they were the most influential of the German rulers, why, for example, the duke of Bavaria was not included? Was it completely arbitrary or what?
Bavaria wasn't a single duchy for most of the fourteenth century. In 1349 the Wittelsbach sons of Ludwig IV split it into Niederbayern and Oberbayern, and then in 1353 Niederbayern was partitioned again into Bayern-Landshut and Bayern-Straubing. So three years later when the Golden Bull was drawn up, there were three Bavarias, and all of them were pretty weak. It's true that the electors were already somewhat codified by the Rhens declaration of 1338, but Bavaria was in a partitioned state then, as well. :p
Okay, another question then. How come these rulers being electors became the norm?
Because that was the law, and people tend to have at least some respect for constitutional law? Because in practice, the office of the Emperor was never held by any one person powerful enough to impose his will on the princes of the Empire by force, and so in order to have any power at all needed to work within a legal framework? Anyway, no Emperor could have gotten an eighth elector or a revision of the electoral system through the Reichstag for several centuries. Maximilian of Bavaria's assumption of the Palatine electoral seat put even more fuel into the constitutional fire that started the Thirty Years' War, and certainly cost the Habsburgs and their allies supporters during the war itself. Indeed, the constitution as it was was such a central element in German political history that it took something as cataclysmic as the Thirty Years' War to change it.
 
Why did France fair comparatively poorly in the War of Spanish Succession, where they were allied with Spain and Bavaria, as opposed to the Nine Years' War, where France was diplomatically isolated?
 
Another European question...

Why was Metternich in particular such a great influence on the Congress of Vienna? Why not some other man/woman?
 
I've actually always found Talleyrand, not Metternich, the most remarkable diplomat at the conference given France's position.
 
Another European question...

Why was Metternich in particular such a great influence on the Congress of Vienna? Why not some other man/woman?

It's commonly believed that Franz and Metternich's relationship was a bit like Wilhelm I's and Bismarck's. In reality, Franz was running the show from behind the scenes, making many of the critical decisions for Metternich. So, the question then becomes, why the Austrians held the dominant position at the Congress; that is a matter I can't say much about, beyond that they were the critical swing vote on the Polish matter (a huge source of controversy between Russia and Prussia), and they were also the host of the meeting.
 
Why did France fair comparatively poorly in the War of Spanish Succession, where they were allied with Spain and Bavaria, as opposed to the Nine Years' War, where France was diplomatically isolated?
The Habsburgs weren't fighting the Turks and they had most of Hungary, I suppose - though the Rákóczi uprising mitigated that to some degree. The extent to which France was "allied" to Spain is also arguable; was Spain more of a manpower pit and money sink for France due to the Catalans, Portuguese, and English, or was it a useful ally? Same with Bavaria - did it suck French troops away from useful purposes by sending them on a fool's errand into southern Germany, or did it boost French effective manpower? I don't know the answers to those questions...

In terms of military theory, one could argue that the nature of the Nine Years' War made it seem like it went better for France, because nobody attempted any 'decisive operations' - certainly a matter of degree, but it's hard not to argue that Louis' armies barely did anything in the majority of the conflict, possessed no sense of operational tempo or momentum, and often as not just sat still in a theater for a year at a time. The point of the Nine Years' War was survival, save possibly in Flanders and even then only intermittently; the point of the War of the Spanish Succession, especially the first few years, was external goals: sending an army against the Habsburgs in Germany, conquering Flanders, securing Spain, fighting in Italy. One could apply Clausewitzian theory to that situation and argue that the fact that his goals involved the strategic offensive meant that, when the same army and same treasury tried to accomplish more ambitious objectives, they performed worse.

If you want to bring the generalship of Eugen and Marlborough into it too I suppose you could, along with France losing Luxembourg.
 
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