He's probably making a shockingly bad and inaccurate Depression analogy. The banks loaned money irresponsibly, leading to a crash. Sound depressingly (zing!) familiar?So I'm reading an article by Moravscik about the often alleged democratic deficit in the European Union, and he says there isn't one. However he says that the ECB is too independent and that;
What is he referring to? Its probably quite obvious but I am an historical innocent so there you go.
Of course, there was considerably more to the Great Depression than that, making me think that this guy either doesn't know what he's talking about in the slightest, or I'm way off. With my trademark arrogance, I will simply assume that I am correct in all things.