Is it right for a judge to rule on this?

"A sexual relationship between husband and wife is the expression of affection they have for each other, and in this case it was absent ... By getting married, couples agree to sharing their life and this clearly implies they will have sex with each other."
Click to expand...

You can base your marriage on whatever the hell you want.

If there is no written contract stipulating copulation, this case should be thrown out.
 
"$14,000 for no sex? Wait till they see what I do now!"
 
You know, I've defended some unpopular lawsuits, but this one is God awful.
 
Couldn't he offer to 'pay off' the judgement by sexing up his ex-wife now?
 
It would be the same ruling in a US divorce court, the only difference being that the judge would not openly state the award as being due to lack of sex. Most states have lack of sex as grounds for divorce.
 
This is so... I don't even... what?
 
warpus said:
You can base your marriage on whatever the hell you want.
Click to expand...

I'm sure there are plenty of people who get married to be celibate.

If there is no written contract stipulating copulation, this case should be thrown out.
Click to expand...

That's what marriage is. When you are married, the state issues you a certificate, which is a binding legal contract, and sex is part of the expectation. It is not mentioned in intricate detail, but it is mentioned as grounds to divorce the spouse, so by inference, it is part of the contract. The only difference with a marriage contract is that the parties are responsible for enforcing it until divorce.
 
Just FYI, don't be trying this in South Korea!

http://english.chosun.com/site/data/html_dir/2010/05/12/2010051201227.html

A court on Tuesday ruled that the refusal by a partner to have sex is not a sufficient reason for divorce. The ruling came after a man in his 40s filed for divorce saying that he had no sexual relations with his wife for over five years due to "personal difference" and that he felt he could not continue their marriage.

"The cessation of sex cannot be construed as a failed marriage," the court said.

...

A court on Tuesday ruled that the refusal by a partner to have sex is not a sufficient reason for divorce. The ruling came after a man in his 40s filed for divorce saying that he had no sexual relations with his wife for over five years due to "personal difference" and that he felt he could not continue their marriage.

"The cessation of sex cannot be construed as a failed marriage," the court said.
Click to expand...
 
You know, Jewish wedding contracts contain the requirement that the man provide sex for his wife when she wants it, but the wife has no duty to ever service her husband.
 
warpus said:
You can base your marriage on whatever the hell you want.

If there is no written contract stipulating copulation, this case should be thrown out.
Click to expand...

Actually, it depends on state law. In some places, people arent considered legally married until they have had sex after the marriage ceremony. Not having sex can be grounds for annulment.
 
Yep, laws on marriage vary so widely from place to place that the concept of "traditional" marriage seems a bit off.
 
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