Bluemofia
F=ma
Oh, well then reffering to "now", well, there hasn't been any industrialized and modernized nations fighting recently, now has there? 

Not against each other. Which follows from my thesis (since most moderized countries have stable populations).Bluemofia said:Oh, well then reffering to "now", well, there hasn't been any industrialized and modernized nations fighting recently, now has there?![]()
I've spent quite a few years studying the origins of WWI, and it would be quite difficult to imagine a worse case study for your thesis.Narz said:I know the reasons people think they go to war but I question them. For example, was it really logical that people would care so much about the death or Archduke Ferdinand as to expend howevermanymillion lives fighting over it?
I also theorize that perhaps "1st-world" wars today are much less bloody (along with the obvious reason of technology) largely because the populations of 1st world countries are realitively stable.
Note : I'm not claiming this theory as true necessarily, I have yet to even undertstand one man (let alone woman) let alone the movements of masses of men. Just seemed an interesting theory to discuss.
Serbia's claim to Bosnia, where the killing took place, was highly disputable; interestingly, they did not claim Voivodina, which had a higher percentage Serb population. Also "the Serbs" is an incredible oversimplification - the premier was a bitter opponent of the Black Hand for which the assassin, Princip, worked (and was on holiday at the time).Evil Tyrant said:The Serbs were mad because the Austrians were occupying their land
1. Franz Ferdinand was well-known as an advocate of devolution (to counterbalance the influence of Hungary, which he hated).so they killed a symbol of Austrian oppression.
Who had many bitter enemies at home. And why was the Austrian ultimatum to Serbia delayed for nearly a month after the shooting?The Austrians were pissed because the heir to their throne was killed,
The Russians had de facto put Serbia in the Austrian zone of influence in an agreement from the 1880s. Moreover, the Serbian government had been pro-Austrian until the 1903 coup.and any moves against a Slavic nation of Orthodox Christians was bound to anger the Russians.
"La revanche" had been a dead letter for forty years: why did it suddenly revive around 1910? And what caused the alliance with Russia in the first place? Why didn't prominent French opponents of war intervene? (One reason, by the way, is that the most prominent of them, Josephe Caillaux, had been politically disqualified by a scandal involving his wife).The French were mad at the Germans for the Franco-Prussian war and were also allies of the Russians.
Again, why the alliance with Austria (whom the Germans had defeated only four years before the French)? And why would they have been worried about France, half their size in terms of population and shrinking in relative terms?The Germans were allies of Austria and saw that the French needed to be put back in their place.
They weren't, actually. The Belgians were neutral and had earlier refused military talks with the British. You're thinking of the 1837 agreement guaranteeing the integrity of Belgium (the famous "scrap of paper" as the Daily Mail called it), to which six other powers were signatories.The Schleifen plan called for an invasion of Belgium, which naturally angered the British who were the allies of Belgium.
The US was irrelevant for the first three years.The US was pretty mad at being torpedoed even though they were traveling on ships with British flags through a war-zone.
Ah, the "entangling alliances" argument? None of the relevant agreements holding together the Entente (1904, 1907) specified a casus belli.It was only the Austrians and Serbs who really cared about the death of Franz Ferdinand, but the other countries were brought in by the actions of Austria and Serbia in response to the death. The actions of their allies brought in other nations.
I dunno, peer pressure?Atropos said:I've spent quite a few years studying the origins of WWI, and it would be quite difficult to imagine a worse case study for your thesis.
If WWI was about population, then why did France, with a relatively stable population over the previous century, join?
They would miss their friends, especially since there was no e-mail back then.Atropos said:Why were German nationalists so worried about emigration (except to German colonies)?
I assume you mean 1971. And hasn't Europe's population risen pretty slowly since then. Except Eastern Europe and Eastern Europe has had it's share of wars since then.Atropos said:Why had there been no major war in Europe since 1871, in spite of explosive population growth?
Well, stable populations aren't a factor for avoiding war really. During WWI and WWII, the industrialized nations have stable populations. But they declared war anyways.Narz said:Not against each other. Which follows from my thesis (since most moderized countries have stable populations).
Narz said:Not against each other. Which follows from my thesis (since most moderized countries have stable populations).
No one knows, but it certainly wasn't population pressure.Narz said:I dunno, peer pressure?
Why was Britain so much more encouraging of emigration?They would miss their friends, especially since there was no e-mail back then.
Huh? We're talking WWI here. It broke out in 1914. To reiterate my point: If population pressure leads to wars, why was 1871-1914 one of the most peaceful periods in Europe's history?I assume you mean 1971. And hasn't Europe's population risen pretty slowly since then. Except Eastern Europe and Eastern Europe has had it's share of wars since then.
Atropos said:And why was the Austrian ultimatum to Serbia delayed for nearly a month after the shooting?
Brits are more stoic?Atropos said:Why was Britain so much more encouraging of emigration?
I don't know.Atropos said:Huh? We're talking WWI here. It broke out in 1914. To reiterate my point: If population pressure leads to wars, why was 1871-1914 one of the most peaceful periods in Europe's history?
Atropos said:Huh? We're talking WWI here. It broke out in 1914. To reiterate my point: If population pressure leads to wars, why was 1871-1914 one of the most peaceful periods in Europe's history?
Sidhe said:Atropos: we fought a few wars with Africa during that period and so did a few other countries, it's not a very good example but I still agree with your points.
I'd be hard pressed to point out a time period when Europe wasn't deeply divided by war. at least post 200 BC. It does point out that humanities propensity to declare war was not effected by population, because there has been no significant increse in war which correlates with population growth.
Dreadnought said:they used Ferninand's death as an excuse really...
taper said:I read something once about how wars don't really decrease population growth, because growth is mostly determined by the women. Even with all the men in the field, only one night of leave a year is needed to "plant the seed." And while some women are killed in wars, historically men have taken far heavier losses.
I also don't think wars are started because of population control, although a country with a lot of people might think they're able to win a war because of the number of people it has. Virtually every war has economics as one of the core reasons.