I am not exactly sure what you are implying here with these biological differences when we are talking about ontologically subjects to begin with. For example, people in Russia speak mostly Russian, and not many people speak English. Can we conclude from this that Russians are simply biologically predisposed to speaking Russian? Can we also conclude from this that Russians are not biologically suited for speaking English? Because that is how your passage reads.
Psychology as a field is itself a Western and fairly recent invention. I can assure you that in other cultures people aren't as obsessed with five-factor models, personality tests, and other ways to box and label people as if they were inanimate objects.
And using your logic from the previous paragraph, can we conclude that Westerners are biologically inclined to take personality tests?