So you're summing up terms
xi(yi-xi) -z(yi-xi)
=(xi-z)(yi-xi),
right?
And you are hoping that the sum of these products is the same as the product of sums? That's not the case. Simple example:
2*5 +3*4 +1*1 is not (2+3+1)(5+4+1).
I'm not sure what helps azzaman with his original problem because his wording and context is a little confusing, but your example doesn't match what he wrote. In fact, what he wrote is certainly true in simple instances, really just distributive property, for example:
3*(5-3) - 2*(5-3) = (3-2)(5-3) = 2
If you're dealing with finite numbers in your sequence I don't see what's wrong with what azzaman said first, maybe if the x
i and y
i values diverge you might not be able to do that, I didn't really look into it further.
edit - ok, I was so caught up in responding to Atticus that I missed what should be part of an the answer to azzaman's question.
You can't actually split up the summation just like that. You can just rewrite it as (xi-z)(yi-xi) though inside the sum, if that helps.
In fact I might have miscontrued Atticus post in that it seemed like he was attempting to give a counterexample to the first part of his post in the second when maybe he wasn't. The example he gives matches the problem with what azzaman was attempting.
final edit for azzaman -I don't know what you are actually trying to prove and whether it's much simpler, but if you need an anvil to hammer a nail just using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality could help you azzaman, or what you need for your proof might be found in a component of that proof.