Melior Traiano
Warlord
- Joined
- Feb 13, 2007
- Messages
- 220
The mean (the number of winning combats subtracted by the number of losing combats) actually should not be zero, it should be something greater than zero, because most of the combats were fought at winning odds.This means the variance of your statistic is 81135. The standard deviation is its square root -- 285.
The value of the statistic you computed -- 800 -- is 2.81 standard deviations away from the mean (0).
The odds of seeing that is no better than a one in 7.8 chance. (ignoring selection bias)
If we boldly assume the statistic is normally distributed, it means it's closer to 1 in 200 or 1 in 300. (I don't have a table handy to do the lookup) But such an assumption is probably too bold.
If someone was motivated, they could work out the precise significance of the result. Alas I'm not motivated at the moment.
The question becomes: is the observed number of winning combats significantly more than one would expect, given the stated odds for each combat in this sample of independent trials? Again, I for one don't see anything suspicious about this sample to even bother to run the calculations on it.
In any case, if one were to do this, you'd need to compute a test statistic that compares the odds of winning, as stated by the game, vs. the actual frequency observed in a sample large enough to be reasonably confident that you would detect a difference, if in fact, there were a difference.