1. Britain was not against a revision of border in Eastern Europe and as well did not mind (and felt that it would be better if) Hitler attacked USSR in alliance with some Eastern European states (Poland, Hungary for example). Evidence to that could be seen in (IMHO) deliberate passifism of the British position (Munich) and desire to sacrifice anything in Europe (from Czechsolovakia to Rhineland demilitarization treaty) in order to strenghen Germany and guide it towards a war with USSR. This same war that Hitler wanted in Mein Kampf and Churchil wanted from the very beginnings of USSR (realising threat of Bolshevism to the British Capitalist system). Memoirs of both leaders are an evidence to their intent.
2. France had to go along with any British policy because Britain was needed as a strong ally.
Hmm, well, I agree, Britain and France were most decidedly not against revision of the Eastern European borders. The Locarno Pact with pre-Nazi (Weimar) Germany proves it - Germany's western borders were confirmed as absolute while her eastern borders were
not assured as permanent, which was nothing if not a promise to change Poland and Czechoslovakia's borders in favor of Germany. And appeasement was indeed the foreign policy towards Germany in the mid-to-late-1930s, but while a desire to goad Germany into war with the Soviets may have been existent in that appeasement, a major reason for it was to simply avoid war. Revisions of the Versailles Treaty, in the form of the Dawes and Young Plans regarding reparations; Locarno, which ended Germany's exile from participation in the foreign affairs of Europe) had already been made even before Hitler, and the Rhineland, parts of which were supposed to be patrolled by French, American, and British forces, was being evacuated step-by-step - Americans gave France their sector in 1923; the British left 2 years later; the French left their area in 1930. It was a desire to prevent war, and also unwillingness to use resources and troops in these areas, that contributed to appeasement.
But otherwise, I would agree, then, that there was intense anti-communist feeling in Europe's governments.
If you are talking about the infamous pact then you are partially correct. Mutual Non Agression Treaties existed almost between all powers by September 1939. If you are talking about "dividing" other states then position of Western leaders (Churchil and Roosevelt) "dividing" Europe into spheres of influence with Stalin is no more honorable than Molotov-Robentrop pact. It was a geopolitical division of the world based on a document or "verbal" agreement. Nothing new, nothing old.
Yes! Totally agree with you there!
First of all I'd like to appologise for the tone of my previous statement. I try to have discussions on different levels with different people, based on their knowledge and attitude. Had I known you'd be participating in here I would have phrased everything better argumented and more polite.
With regard to the land the only thing I can say is that it changed hands a number of times and by XXth century was inhabited by people other than Poles or the Russians. If anything it did not belong to either, unless in some form of voluntary union.
The "problems" for those territories began when Lithuania that allowed freedom of conscious was replaced by Catholic Poland that had much harsher asttitude towards religion. I would not go deeper into that as I just wanted to show why local population rather welcomed Orthodox "liberation" of Byelorussia and Ukraine (to be joined with Russia) that turned out to be a better solution than being under Catholic Poland (which is still worse than being independant). Enough about that.
No apologies necessary, I probably had,have, will have a similar tone as well. On a related side-note, is it just me, or is the Polish-Russian conflicts/arguments as old as time itself and neverending? lol
Hmm, but I would kind of disagree with you in the second paragraph you make. The Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth was very tolerant towards other religions - yes, the Catholics did try to impose themselves here and there, but then again did not the Orthodox in Russia do the same at least occasionally? During the Inquisitions, Jews often fled to Poland; during the Reformation, there was relatively little sectarian violence in Poland-Lithuania, and various Protestant beliefs took hold among segments of the aristocracy. But yes, in those days of the Commonwealth, often "being Polish" was more a social rank than an ethnicity, resulting from many Lithuanian nobles' assimilation with the Polish language and culture. Though the Chmielnicki (Khmelnytsky) Uprising was contributed to partially by the Ukrainian Cossacks' being Orthodox rather than Catholic and very much by tensions between the Catholic nobility and largely-Orthodox peasantry.
However, if by Catholic Poland you mean the Second Republic (inter-war 1918-1939), I would be more inclined to agree with you. Inter-war Poland was indeed affected very much by nationalism, especially after Pilsudski's death, and the Byelorussian, Ukrainian, and Jewish minorities living in the
Kresy Wschodnie (Eastern Frontiers) were sidelined very often.
And it's quite interesting you bring religion into the argument of the Byelorussian and Ukrainian desire to join Russia, especially since the Soviet Union was oficially atheist and missed few opportunities to repress and discredit organized religions.
With regard to resistance I'm afraid here's when I begin to disagree with you. You are I'm sure well aware of the "border war" between Poland and the Soviet Union when Polish gangsters crossed the border and pillaged Soviet land? I'm sure the attitude of governments and nations to eath other by the beginning of 1939 was quite negative. In that respect to think that Poles accepted Soviet troops on their territory under that reason (Polish government refused many times to allow Soviet troops) is a little foolish.
Right - my bad. It was the army command that ordered the troops not to battle the Soviets, and I read
why the generals ordered this but can't recall the reason for their command at the moment.
The talks that you are talking about failed mostly due to Polish position of non allowing Soviet troops (I am sure all Eastern European states had the same fears). Under those conditions how would such a war (against German agressor?) be conducted? Soviet leaders like many others had fears of a unified Euroean Crusade against them and weak defence talks (fueled by strange British pacifism) did look like a trap to Soviet leaders at that time.
Well, yes, the Polish government refused to allow Soviet right-of-passage through Poland. Why? Well, simply because they knew that if Soviet troops enter Polish soil, they will not leave, and will begin setting up a puppet state, if not seeking to incorporate the entire country as a new republic (there were some Soviet government leaders even in 1945 that envisioned joining what remained of Poland due to border revisions as a new SSR).
"Bah! Paranoia!", some might say. But even if there was some paranoia, it was there for the right reasons. The last time that Russian troops were in Poland as simple protectors for Poland was in the 18th century, when the Russian Empire declared Poland-Lithuania its protectorate. But the troops did more than just "prevent foreign invasions and further slide into anarchy" - they broke up sessions of the
Sejm whenever it appeared a law reforming and strengthening the Commonwealth would pass, which would have derailed the plans of Russian, Austrian, and Prussian monarchs for partitioning the country.
And what was the USSR if not simply the heir of Russian Empire? After all, while promoting national self-determination, the Soviets soon sought to regain the breakaway states, not being able to regain only Poland, Lithuania, Estonia, Latvia, and Finland until after the World War II, all but Finland were firmly either SSRs or made into satellite. So if Soviet troops entered Poland, why
would they leave? And even later when Poland had no choice in the matter, as the Soviets "liberated" Poland, the Red Army did indeed remain, last troops not being pulled out until the fall of Communism in the Soviet Bloc.
Simple anti-Communism cannot be attributed as the single cause for Poland's refusal to let the Red Army through.
Also despite NAPs with neighbours Poland felt strong enough to capture Vilnus area from Lithuania after the WW1 and participate in partition of Czechoslovakia after givign them an ultimatuum. Fieldmarshal Keitel in his memoirs is saying: "In the evening 14th March personal Hitlers regiment invaded into Moravia Ostrava to prevent local mettalurgic factories from being taken by Poles". Poland did not hide its agressive attitudes in Eastern Europe and its position towards Nazism. In fact even today I read publications that claim that Poland should have been an ally of Germany. Actions of Poland back them indicate that thats where they wanted to be. If you are interested I can list you some interesting ideas about that....
Lithuania was nothing compared to the Soviet Union.
Of course Poland felt strong enough against a little-ass new country like Lithuania - just like the Soviet Union of course felt comparatively tiny Poland was a piece of cake.
Yes, Poland was a culprit in the dismemberment of Czechoslovakia. I, too, think that was a really bad, really incriminating decision on the part of the Polish government and military.
Poland had aggressive tendencies in Eastern Europe only to the extent of joining ethnic Poles into Poland - such was the tendency for most, if not all, the post-WW1 states of the region, including Germany and the Soviet Union which claimed to be just trying to help Byelorussians and Ukrainians in Poland. You can't seriously single out Poland for this kind of nationalism - it was guilty of it, but it was just one among a whole group of like-minded countries.
Poland, when signing the 1934 Non-Aggression Pact with Hitler, was not trying to court the Nazis or throw in with them. After all, just 2 years prior, a Non-Aggression Pact was signed with the Soviet Union! It was simply an attempt to maintain at least a shaky peace with the two powers while the Polish economy rebounded and the military was increased, trained better, and upgraded wherever possible. Poland was repeatedly approached by the Nazis for an alliance against the Soviets, but refused. Poland's government also refused French plans in 1934 for an anti-German Eastern European security pact, because Poland's border with the Soviet Union was not guaranteed. Poland's entire foreign policy was trying to maintain a very delicate balance between Germany and the Soviet Union, to avoid either declaring war.
Even in 1939, when the Nazis again approached Poland to join the Axis Powers, the Polish government refused, as the Nazis at the same time demanded the cession of the "Polish Corridor" and Danzig to Germany.
Thus, I hardly see how people could say Poland was meant to be Hitler's ally in any way shape or form, when numerous attempts to bring Poland into the Axis fold, even though Poland had an authoritarian government and extorted Wilno (Vilnius/Vilna) from Lithuania after a prolonged state of war and Cieszyn (Teschen/Tesin) from Czechoslovakia during the moment of weakness, were rebuffed.
The actions taken regarding Wilno and Cieszyn were extreme and opportunistic (though Wilno had a liitle more justification, I think, but still more on the wrong side), but they can hardly be with reasonably interpreted as showing a desire to join Nazism. If that's the reasoning, then the Czechoslovaks wanted to be with Nazi Germany for wanting to keep their state intact; the Lithuanians for wanting to regain Vilnius; Hungarians for wanting to regain Slovakia and Transylvania; Romanians for wanting to keep Bessarabia and Transylvania; etc. The trend in central and eastern Europe was nationalism and revisionism of borders. Even before the Nazis could even fathom coming to power, democratic Weimar Germany sought revisionism of its borders, but that hardly means they immediately wanted to be totalitarian and kill non-Germans.
In the second paragraph you willingly or unwillingly hide that Poles did invade Ukraine to occupy it and extend the borders to the maximum extent of "Rech Pospolita". Poland was no different than the Russian Empire or USSR when it was going for those territories. But hey who wasnt whose days?
Agreed, it was nostalgic imperialism on the Polish side, though Pilsudski had a vision of a federal state of Lithuanians, Ukrainians, Poles, and Byelorussians that treated all these peoples equally and protected the area of this
Miedzymorze from German and Russian expansionism, while Roman Dmowski was a nationalist who preferred a "Poland for the Poles", basically.
Have you asked yourslf WHY there was no majour battles for Poland and why they were able to escape? IMHO it was due to the fact that the first order given to the Polish Army was to escape and not to fight. Polish President and government escaped the capital onthe 4th and 5th of September - Long before the war was over!!! That was after Britain and France declared war on Germany. Poland had to defend itself only 15 days - in that time mobilization in France would have been completed. However on the 3rd fo Sept. the Presendent gives the order to relocate the army to South-East of the country. 3rd day of war! He gives orders not to defend Wisla, not the destroy German armies or re-organise but to ESCAPE to furthest parts of the country. Doesn't that suffice to say that Poland did not wish to fight?
The Polish Army was ordered to defend the border - and we all know that there was German East Prussia in the north, so it was a very lengthy border to defend. So the forces were thinly spread as it is. They ended up withdrawing to the east, because planners estimated that they could hold the area near the Romanian bridgehead for several months, which would be more than enough time as France and Britain were supposed to open a front in the west and thus force Germany to send some troops away from Poland to defend its homeland. Misinformation among the troops was also rampant because German divisions disrupted communication and some newspapers and radiostations sent bogus reports of victories or losses or troop numbers. It was the plan to defend the long-stretched borders, then, that failed and forced the remnants of the army to withdraw to the Romanian bridgehead.
And yes the Government was very discredited when it left Warsaw - only the President of Warsaw remained and urged on the people to continue enduring the nearly-monthlong siege of the capital.
And the defense of the Romanian bridgehead plan failed because the Soviets came across the border halfway through September, so instead of defending just against the Germans in that part of Poland, now there would have to be trouble with the Red Army - two large armies that the Polish Army could not possibly resist long enough, even if Poland's Western Allies
were prepping their troops an attack on Germany, which they weren't.
So, no, I do not think that it can be said that Poland didn't want to fight. I mean come on - the border with Germany was very long so and really encircled Poland, so it was almost hopeless. And throw in a batch of Soviet Red Army soldiers coming in, not to mention all-words-and-no-action Western Allies, and of course Poland is screwed. Poland
did try to fight, but the initial plan to defend was flawed by the extensive German-Polish borders and a huge, misplaced faith on the French and British, and the fallback plan was compromised by the invasion from the East and the resulting pincer.
I'm not fond of re-thinking WW2 and how it unfolded, but the more revisionism comes from Western authors (with modern political goals) the more Russians will be aware not only of their own history, but also of the before hidden aspects of the history of others...as a shield against various accusations.
But unfortunately, we
must revisit World War II, because not all of
accepted history is true. It's not just for the purpose "who's to blame for whose misfortunes", but also to have a chance at reconciliation. Painful, horrible questions like "What really happened at Katyn, who was responsible, was it genocide?" (concerning modern Polish-Russian relations) must be asked and the controversies, debates, and finally investigations and openings of archives and files must come, so that we know what really happened. Only then can the people of otherwise-opposing nations come together, remember, apologize, and honor the victims of evils that affected both nations in unity and understanding. If we just leave it alone as it is, we'll never know our own history. Germans after the war were given painful wake-up calls, some being forced to walk by emaciated corpses of death march victims, and had learned the truth of what their wonderful Fuhrer Adolf Hitler did, and came to terms with it and learned lessons. They learned their own history, and learned that it must never again be allowed to repeat. We all must strive to do the same, even if it means a moment of tears, pain, anger, or even initial denial.
however if it is used as an excuse for modern political gains every Russian will defend...not Stalin, not Bolshevism but Motherland just as they did in WW2. USSR survived because people were fighting not for Stalin, not for colonies, but for their own existance.
Beautifully said.