You may have missed the Europe First strategy of the Allies.
Does nothing to disprove my point regarding the war in the pacific. But lets debunk your offer of proof:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Europe_first
The inability of the two allies to mount an invasion of German-controlled northern Europe in 1943 permitted the U.S. to maintain more military forces arrayed against Japan than Germany. As late as December 1943, the balance was nearly even. Against Japan, the U.S. had deployed 1,873,023 men, 7,857 aircraft, and 713 warships. Against Germany the totals were 1,810,367 men, 8,807 airplanes, and 515 warships.[12] The military buildup of American forces for the invasion of France in 1944 shifted the balance of American resources toward the European theater and made Europe First a reality. However, despite the majority of American resources going into Europe in 1944, the U.S. still had sufficient resources to mount several major military operations in the Pacific that year: Saipan (June 1944); Guam (July 1944); Peleliu (September 1944); and the invasion of the Philippines at Leyte in October 1944.
As I said, your point does nothing to disprove mine. At all.
Really? I'd be happy to see your sources for that statement. Perhaps you'd like to compare WW II casualties by nation with the Vietnam war casualty list.
Was Vietnam of the scale/scope of WWII?

Nice try, no logic.
They may have, or may not have. Decisive was, as your military mind surely knows, the action on the ground. And the USSR was quite capable of producing its own aircraft and materiel. The most prolificly produced tank in WW II (to name just one example) was the T-42
Actually, my military mind tells me the most produced tank of WWII was the Russian T-34 (56,000 produced) followed closely by the Sherman (50,000 produced).
And we arent discussing what nations were capable of, but what they actually produced. Lets deal in facts...not fantasy ok?
the comparable US tank of the time was considered less impressive by the Soviets, so they politely declined to use it.
They didnt decline to use it.
The Soviet Union's nickname for the M4 medium tank was Emcha because the open-topped figure 4 resembled the Cyrillic letter che or cha (Ч

.[citation needed] The diesel engined M4A2 used by the Red Army were considered to be
much less prone to burn and explode than Russian tanks.[9]
A total of 4,102 M4A2 medium tanks were sent to the U.S.S.R. under Lend-Lease. Of these, 2,007 were equipped with the 75 mm gun, and 2,095 carried the 76 mm gun. The total number of Sherman tanks sent to the U.S.S.R. under Lend-Lease represented 18.6% of all Lend-Lease Shermans.[10]
The first 76-mm-armed Shermans started to arrive in Soviet Union in the summer of 1944.[11]
In 1945, some units were standardized to depend mostly on them, and not on the ubiquitous T-34: 1st Guards Mechanized Corps, 3rd Guards Mechanized Corps, and 9th Guards Mechanized Corps.[11]
My lord...you're worse than Form on military history. And thats saying something.
Since Allied troops only arrived in mainland Europe in 1943 (and getting stuck up the Italia boot), that leaves the USSR as taking the brunt of the action. By the time of D-Day the Soviest were already at the East German border. And surely you, as a miltary man, know that the Eastern Front was were the most part of an unending line of German casualties fell.
And what made that possible? Do you not think the continuous day/night allied bombling of German military production (munitions/ballbearings/oil) didnt affect the Germans ability to fight the Soviets in the East?
Yeah, you're just as myopic as Form is, if not worse.
Still not able to play ball, MB?
Oh, I can play ball. But from your comments above, you're not even in the stadium yet.
Why were the American units "too late" when the most severe fighting in the Soviet Union occurred in the winter of 1942 during the battle of Stalingrad and in 1943?
Form, surely you realize that this doesnt equate to the US having a
minor role in WWII as you alleged, right? No one is arguing that there wasnt severe fighting in 42/43 in the East, but that simply doesnt wash away what the US did in the other factors affecting the war: logistics, the war in the Pacific, US bombing campaigns in Europe, and lend lease.
Nor does it make the US effort minor.
What exactly prevented them from taking part, especially given that most of the Japanese army was already committed to fighting elsewhere, especially in China? Furthermore, what stopped the UK from doing the same?
The US and UK did take part, just not on the ground in the East. Are you seriously unable to equate levels of involvement aside from ground ops in the East? Are you that naive in things military? It would seem so.