But if ss 7 & 24 indicate that the government must be 'chosen by the people', surely a literal interpretation of that includes women (or, because that's more ambiguous in this case, given South Australian women could vote and were protected by s 41, how about we go for something clearer and say 'non-whites' (ignoring that a little, but less, ambiguity arises in that case too)). Yet that is not what was intended. The founders actually had a pretty explicit intention that non-whites shouldn't vote. In fact, that was one of the main driving forces behind federation. Why is there a need for undertaking a historically difficult amendment process to include an express provision that non-whites are indeed people? And what if it didn't pass? Would it then be alright to disenfranchise non-whites, on the basis that ss 7 & 24 provide no protection for them, because that's what the founders intended? Or should we go with a literal interpretation, informed by contemporary standards? And if we then went for such a literal interpretation, how would it not be 'strict'?