The Most infulental Civ ever

Well the kings of England were technically vassals of the French king, until the end of the Hundred Years' War. Also, French was the language used in Parliament and most of England until English emerged as a mix of Celtic, German, Norse, and a host of other languages, although the English did alot in their own right
 
Cheezy the Wiz said:
Well the kings of England were technically vassals of the French king, until the end of the Hundred Years' War. Also, French was the language used in Parliament and most of England until English emerged as a mix of Celtic, German, Norse, and a host of other languages, although the English did alot in their own right

If you can prove this to me I will believe you,but would England really use a monarchy under French rule.I cant believe the language thing in parliament because the Magna Carta wasnt signed until the end of the middle ages.
 
The Magna Carta was signed in 1215, more than two hundred years before the end of the Middle Ages.

The Kings of England from 1066 to 1453 were French vassals not as English Kings, but as rulers of other lands. Particularly Normandy, Anjou and Aquitaine were fiefs of France that at various times had the same ruler as England. This ended in 1453 when the French took back Aquitaine, unless Calais was a French fief.
 
Cheezy the Wiz said:
Also, French was the language used in Parliament and most of England until English emerged as a mix of Celtic, German, Norse, and a host of other languages, although the English did alot in their own right

What on earth do you mean? English existed as a language before the Norman Conquest. It's not like the English started out speaking French and only later evolved English to replace it! Rather, after the Conquest the nobility spoke French (though it wasn't much like the French spoken in France) while everyone else continued to speak English, until eventually Norman French died out and everyone spoke English. Also, English is not a "mix of Celtic, German, Norse" and others. It's a Germanic language that evolved out of the Anglo-Saxon tongues with influences from French (after the Conquest), Danish, and other sources. Not Celtic and not German as such!

Also, I must point out that King John, who signed the Magna Carta, was a vassal not of the French but of Pope Innocent III.
 
sydhe said:
The Magna Carta was signed in 1215, more than two hundred years before the end of the Middle Ages.

The Kings of England from 1066 to 1453 were French vassals not as English Kings, but as rulers of other lands. Particularly Normandy, Anjou and Aquitaine were fiefs of France that at various times had the same ruler as England. This ended in 1453 when the French took back Aquitaine, unless Calais was a French fief.

I knew it was 12 something but didnt know what the exact year was. Second off 200 years is not that long in comparison to human history. By fief you mean lord right? If the English ruler signed the Magna Carta in 1215 France couldnt of had control of Britain at the time.
 
English is a germanic-based language.I took three years of German, and English is based heavily on German. the reason i mentioned the other languages is that English, unlike other languages( or at least not to the extent that English does), absorbs words and phrases from other languages. It was in the front of my English Lit book this semester: the history of the English language. English absorbed many words fromt he different areas that is encountered and eventually occupied: Britannia, Ireland, N America, parts of Africa( mostly S African), India, and Australia. If you''d like, i can type the whole thing up, but it will be several posts long, so id start a new thread for it probably. Even if not for the sake of argument, it is still avery interestind read. Actually, I think I will write it, just because I'm bored. It'll be in the History forum, called "History of the English Language."
 
Cheezy the Wiz said:
English is a germanic-based language.I took three years of German, and English is based heavily on German. the reason i mentioned the other languages is that English, unlike other languages( or at least not to the extent that English does), absorbs words and phrases from other languages. It was in the front of my English Lit book this semester: the history of the English language. English absorbed many words fromt he different areas that is encountered and eventually occupied: Britannia, Ireland, N America, parts of Africa( mostly S African), India, and Australia. If you''d like, i can type the whole thing up, but it will be several posts long, so id start a new thread for it probably. Even if not for the sake of argument, it is still avery interestind read. Actually, I think I will write it, just because I'm bored. It'll be in the History forum, called "History of the English Language."

English isnt based on German, It was based on the languages Greek and Latin. It did also take some words from other languages such as the word beautiful from the French language.
 
English isn't "based" on Latin, far less on Greek! It's a Germanic language (which isn't the same thing as being based on German, since the two languages developed in parallel from partly common roots). Certainly French was more of an influence on modern English than Latin was, at least in vocabulary. The main influence of Latin is upon the grammar and sentence structure of baroque-era poetry such as that of Milton, which tries to turn English into a sort of Latinate language. Which is all very fine, but not very relevant to English as it is commonly spoken, either then or now.

The Conqueror22 said:
Second off 200 years is not that long in comparison to human history.

No, but it is a fair old while compared to the Middle Ages. If we take the (high) Middle Ages to be roughly 1000 to 1400, the signing of the Magna Carta was plum in the middle - in fact, I think it would be generally accepted that the thirteenth century was the pinnacle of the Middle Ages, before things started going horribly wrong in the fourteenth. I don't know what the relations were between France and England at that time, but I can certainly say that being someone else's vassal wouldn't have been inconsistent with John's signing anything. Because, as I said, John was actually the vassal of the Pope.

Plus, of course, John didn't actually sign the Magna Carta. He just put his seal on it.
 
Plotinus said:
I think it would be generally accepted that the thirteenth century was the pinnacle of the Middle Ages, before things started going horribly wrong in the fourteenth.

In a subjective sense and depending on what civilizations you are interested in, IMO. If you're interested in Islamic Spain or Southern France it most certainly isn't the 13th C.
 
Esox said:
Indeed, but interesting to discuss. I vote for the Greeks, who came up with democracy and the decisive battle. Both of those things have stayed around for a long time.

I agree that the concept of the decisive battle was very important. It enabled military scholarship (as in Thucidides), and philosophical understanding of war ("War is the father of everything").
Although few other city-states focused as much on war as Sparta, the general culture hailed military training as a virtue. Also the fact that the people of the ancient era in Greece were used to going to war (possible it was rare that one would spend all of his life without being once in war) meant that they had a more immediate understanding of it.
Having an immediate understanding of lethal danger might have led to them minimising its idealistic understanding, something which is ussual in societies that did not go to war, or in modern society where the vast majority of the citizents of the west will not see war up close (which is positive though ofcourse in other respects).
Definately being close to war meant that they would have had formed more vivid views about it than we have.

A parallel, perhaps, of the theorising of war (or hostility, battle) between those civs that were accustomed to it, and those who werent, can be seen even today in the mass psychology of children who are accustomed to getting in fights in school, and those who try to stay out of them at all cost. The latter ussually form intricate views about fighting, but what is paramount in them is the fear of actually being in a fight; the fact that there is no empirical impression of it enables more idealistic ones. It is rare to see a child that is used to fighting to have such an idealistic notion about it, and one should guesss that this is also because it is identifying its empirical knowledge of it with the very phenomenon of fighting itself- which may not be "correct" but it is definately different than focusing on an idealism of it.

One could also mention Nietzsche's view, in "the Genealogy of Ethics" about the Jewish culture and its plan to "exist at all costs". Although a general view, it is claimed in it that due to the relative weakness of the jewish nation at all times, it wanted to avoid combat with its enemies and so developed a more retired understanding of combat and danger, which formed its religion and tradition.

On the contrary in the ancient greek world there was a decision to fight against the far more numerous persians, and this should signify the difference in culture.

Imo both general positions are productive, in their own ways. In the modern West we most likely will never see war in our countries, but this possibly means that its idealistic understanding will be kept in our minds, and be influencing our culture in the future as well.
 
Back
Top Bottom