Princeps
More bombs than God
- Joined
- Aug 22, 2004
- Messages
- 5,265
Punishment is the sole right of the victim, not of the system or anything like that.
No, the system decides whether the victim has the right to retribute. A victim is unlikely to take such action alone.
ALso, you havent shown how it is arbitrary(libertarians claim it isnt because it doesnt break the golden rule unlike positivist law)
According to wikipedia, arbitrariness is defined as "choices and actions subject to individual will, judgment or preference, based solely upon an individual's opinion or discretion."
The golden rule is arbitrary.
Libertarians believe that the entire society should be shaped according to an abitrary rules, i.e. "natural law", "natural rights", conceived by libertarian ideologues. Since libertarians believe that these laws should be enforced through an unalterable and undemocratic regime (since majoritarianism is evil) and should not require the consent and recognition of affected individuals, the question to be answered is, where does the libertarian conception of laws derive its legitimacy? It doesn't get it from majority support nor inidividual choice.
You haven't really answered this question I posed: "If the individual A does not recognize the property (entitlements) of individual B, how can he be punished for violating it, since has not contractually recognized the ownership of that property?"
There is not social contract, remember?
the use of labour is what differentiates owned land and items.
No. It does not. This is an abitrary definition.
if you agree with the self ownership principle, then taxation IS theft.
No. The concept of soverign individual is transparently false. An individual has little political power on his own, and he has no inherent or god-given rights or responsibilities.
The political power of an individual is derived from his relationship with the rest of the political community and the population, not from the virtue of his individuality.
I use the rothbardian definition, because it follows the golen rule. Other definitions dont follow golden rule.
a property owner isnt coercing by rothbardian definition by existing.
Yes, he is. This is because Rothbardianism is contradictory. A property owner is, in essence, claiming something as his own without any political process, without asking recognition and acceptance of the ownership from others affected people. The only way he can enforce this aribtrary arrengement is with the backing of institutional violence. And in doing so, he is coercively restricting the liberties of some to his own benefit.
the other person is the one initiating aggression, if he chooses to use the owners possessions without his permission,
Suppose he needs them urgently. He hasn't signed a contract recognizing the posessions as belonging to someone else. It would be in violation of his individual liberties if an abitrary arrengement was enforced on him without his consent, (i.e. the arrengement stopping him from using the other persons property).
and the owners response is not initiation of aggression, as long as it is proportional.
Again. tax ladies don't shoot you if don't pay your taxes, but that doesn't mean that taxation isn't force. It is simply civilized and velvet clad force.