Wow. I can't remember how many times i have witnessed this kind of discussion on many forums, its quite funny to look it here on civfanatics. Maybe the reason is because the core of the game is based on real life.
Okay here it is my two cents: no offense intended by the way.
As far as i understand, Falkland islands were uninhabited when they were discovered by european explorers. But it seems the english got there first commanded by John Davis on Thomas Cavendish's expedition to the New World. [
http://www.polarconservation.org/education/explorers/john-davis].
However the french settled there first in the mid 18th century (Port St.Louis) which was later claimed for the british by John Byron although he did claimed Saunders Island (Port Egmont) which technically one of the islands belonging to Falklands. [
http://www.falklands.info/history/history2.html]
The islands were subsequently acquired from France by the Spanish (presuming the french colony based there) while Spain attacked Port Egmont ending british presense there in the 1770s.
I believe that the result of such diplomatic standoff between britain and spain led to a british victory as they restored their base at Port Egmont.
Events happened after that time, including American revolutionary war, and the economic pressure associated with it forced the british to withdraw from many ovearseas settlements, but formally the UK never renounced their claims in the island as well as Spain.
From a diplomatic and strategic/military standpoint Spain never achieved full control of the islands thus the famous uti possidetis principle claimed by Argentine (related with possesions from Spain during their colonial and viceroyalty ages) to be a falacy.
On this case, we can't talk about terra nullius neither as both the english, french and spanish were in the island and all of them claimed their rights over the land.
So my full support goes to britain based on history records.
Whatsoever i am not an expert on the field. Just a freelance writer.
Cheers
