I think the answer right now is that nobody knows. Early Hebrew texts are full of references to Canaanite/Phoenician, Aramaean & Eqyptian religions, but make no reference at all to far-off Zoroastrianism. The archaeology shows the same-Jews living in close proximity to pagans, but no evidence of Zoroastrianism in Canaan/Palestine (temples, statues, etc.). The two originated independently of one another-Zoroastrinism in Persia & Judaism in either Canaan, Egypt or Arabia depending on whose opinion wins. By the time Jews & Zoroastrians were living side by side (after the Babylonian conquest), both were well into their ideological development. No. Phoenician, Aramaean & Eqytian paganism had a far, far greater influence on Judaism. The Hebrew alphabet is derived directly from Phoenician. An early Hebrew name for G-d is derived from the name of an Aramaic god. The Egyptians had a failed experiment with monotheism. I can't think of a single word in Hebrew that is derived from a Persian dialect. Not one Jewish ritual is derived from a Zoroastrian practice. Personally, I don't understand why this subject comes up so much. There are mountains of historical & archaeological evidence that early Judaism was influenced by paganism in the Levant, Egypt, Arabia & Mesopotamia, but none at all regarding Zoroastrianism. Judiasm is monotheistic & Zoroastrianism is dualistic & they arose in different places & from different cultures. The answer could & has filled volumes. Please be more specific. I think so, but that depends on the definition of "henotheistic." The Hebrew Bible has plenty of references to G-d having angelic servants. If these are regarded as deities, although lesser ones, then Judaism was definitely henotheistic. If the angels don't count as deities, then the answer is maybe. Archaeology shows a mixed result. In some places in Canaan, Jewish & pagan temples coexisted. In most places there, the pagan temples vanish when Judaism comes along. One theory that has allot of weight is that the 1st Jews were Canaanites who became monotheistic. If that holds true, then early Judiasm must have had henotheistic attributes. The Hebrew Bible is full of warnings about what happens when Jews leave monotheism & return to paganism. This could be seen as evidence of henotheism in those days. All of that being said, monotheism (& tribalism) is what seperated early Judaism from it's neighbors. Without monotheism, they were just Canaanites, Moabites, Edomites or whatever. I detect no idiocy. (Finally, a reason to use that smiley!) Sanity is insane. Plotinus, still a great thread! Hats off to your patience with JEELEEN. JEELEEN, no offense intended. It's just that I can see you're making Plotinus' teeth grind.