Yes, every reference listed above proves I'm correct, Formaldehyde. Please bother to actually read the references and understand what you're reading. You'd see, for instance, that nothing anyone else posted as a reference besides me even discusses or presents examples of implicit multiplication. Truronian, who was claiming his posted links show "side-by-side examples of the difference between the obelus and solidus" don't even do that either, but it's irrelevant.
Also, this is a nice F*** YEAH CANADA here. Sometimes the Canadians are all right.

Despite using the "BEDMAS" acronym the British use a Canadian teachers organization still gets the rest of it correct
http://bctf.ca/diversity/ResourceInventory/LessonsTopics/Davies/BEDMAS.pdf
edit - I want to put things clearly in this post, so let's summarize:
Pretty much any math, physics, science, engineering publication and textbook ever - an expression like h / 2π is always, always h / (2*π

Have fun writing to like every physics textbook author ever to explain your rage to them or whatever. It's painfully obvious that no one will ever write in any printed work an expression looking like the one in the OP to mean "288". But furthermore, and I think this is important, there are actually thousands and thousands of examples where people DO use the implicit multiplication convention, in published journals and textbooks. Yes, even mathematics textbooks, people have found examples and cited books with things like y''/y'x. It's actually a common convention.
Programming languages, calculators, and computer tools: You will get different answers here. It was already all over the Internet anyway, people have screenshots or photos of different calculators and programs simultaneously giving different answers, or errors. However, it's also acknowledged by everyone with a rudimentary education that computer tools are only as smart as users and can make mistakes. Hence why Google does 1/3i differently and Wolfram thinks sin 2pi is equal to sin(2) * pi. None of my argument really depends on any of this anyway, but if the sole basis of yours is that Google gave you an answer, you'd have to say that every other thing input into Google that is obviously wrong is right. It's not a tenable position. (Furthermore we have the issue that actual documentation of producers of such things like the company TI that suggest that the implicit multiplication convention is a higher standard, just not implemented in all calculators, so be careful)
Using the division sign, or obelus symbol, aka this symbol here "÷" : This is the one case that somebody
could provide reasonable contrary evidence for. Finding a text for 10 year olds in Britain or something that's different. None of you have posted such a text, and now that I have both American publications and then the lovely Canadian link above I'm even happier. And again, nothing Truronian or someone else posted actually was an example of this in Britain. The point wasn't "prove that the obelus sign exists, by posting 6 ÷ 3 = 2." or whatever. Completely irrelevant, Truronian. You'd need to find an example of an expression like 2a ÷ 3b as in the OP.
The better answer is
2