I think I've figured out what the issue is. I'm not saying that there's a definition of morality that everyone agrees with. I'm certainly not saying that there's a theory of moral practice available that's perfect.
I'm just saying that, in all the definitions of morality, there's one that objectively actually exists.
It says that there are moral actions (that actually exist) and they have consequences (that actually exist) and they're utterly predictable because they're completely beholden to the real laws of the universe.
So, the laws of morality objectively exist. And then there's the question of moral behaviour. Well, by definition, moral actions affect sentients. There's literally no moral action that doesn't.
The consequences of a moral action are determined by whether they harm or help the sentient. These consequences all exist, they're objectively real things. Harm is real. Hurt is real. In fact, whether these action harmed or hurt the sentient are not subjective. The sentient does not decide whether the action harmed or hurt. The consequences are not subject to their opinion.
So, I think I see where the problem is. My contention is only that objective morality exists.
It's that thing that's composed of real things that operates according to real laws.
It's that real thing composed of real laws that answers the question "is this a good thing to do?"
The problem with the relativists is that they deny that there's this thing that's composed of real things that operates according to known laws. Well, they're wrong. There were peoples who thought that pi was 22/7, and the relativists would think that circles don't exist and that pi is subjective. They're wrong again. The circle exists and it's just that some cultures were wrong about pi. But, the circle still existed as far as they were concerned. It's not like Archimedes built upon Egyptian math and the retort "well, that's just your opinion on circleness"
I'm just saying that, in all the definitions of morality, there's one that objectively actually exists.
It says that there are moral actions (that actually exist) and they have consequences (that actually exist) and they're utterly predictable because they're completely beholden to the real laws of the universe.
So, the laws of morality objectively exist. And then there's the question of moral behaviour. Well, by definition, moral actions affect sentients. There's literally no moral action that doesn't.
The consequences of a moral action are determined by whether they harm or help the sentient. These consequences all exist, they're objectively real things. Harm is real. Hurt is real. In fact, whether these action harmed or hurt the sentient are not subjective. The sentient does not decide whether the action harmed or hurt. The consequences are not subject to their opinion.
So, I think I see where the problem is. My contention is only that objective morality exists.
It's that thing that's composed of real things that operates according to real laws.
It's that real thing composed of real laws that answers the question "is this a good thing to do?"
The problem with the relativists is that they deny that there's this thing that's composed of real things that operates according to known laws. Well, they're wrong. There were peoples who thought that pi was 22/7, and the relativists would think that circles don't exist and that pi is subjective. They're wrong again. The circle exists and it's just that some cultures were wrong about pi. But, the circle still existed as far as they were concerned. It's not like Archimedes built upon Egyptian math and the retort "well, that's just your opinion on circleness"