innonimatu
the resident Cassandra
- Joined
- Dec 4, 2006
- Messages
- 15,374
My main argument is that wage depression in Southern europe is inevitable and -at least right now - beneficial because it suppresses consumption.
In my opinion the root cause of all this is that consumption in many European nations didn't fit productivity and resulted in said service and consumption driven economies (basing on housing and retail booms etc.).
That's too simplistic an explanation. The original problem, the economic (I won't go into political responsibilities just yet) cause of the crisis, was misallocation of investment, and there were two different kinds of it. In some cases investment was allocated not to satisfy national demand but to satisfy speculative cross-border demand. The housing boom of Spain is one possible example: most of the financial capital came from outside, and the future expected demand was supposed to come from there also. A gamble which went wrong. But in most cases foreign capital fueled consumption because there was nothing else profitable it could fuel. And because capital which enters a country as a loan must almost by definition be spend (or lend back) abroad, that which was consumed was imported. It all (capital floes and trade flows) must balance in the end. So trade deficits had to rise if banks were not prevented from lending. Because so long as they had capital available from abroad they'd borrow it and lend it out inside the country. And EU rules prohibited states from curbing or even directing those bank loans.
Now, you can complain that if only those countries had borrowed for importing productive assets it would all have been sustainable. But... could both the demand and the preference for productive assets exist to the scale where all that available capital offered to and by the banks would be invested that way?
No. Because no one else was buying. Why would people buy productive assets? To produce. What for? To sell, mostly. Which is only profitable if you aren't being undercut in your prospective markets. Sure, there were possible productive investment, and there were some productive investments made. But no way could the scale of the flood of capital which followed the monetary union be employed that way. The only way to avoid the problem would have been to prevent most of those loans from being taken in the first place. And here we should look more carefully at your graphs (thanks for collecting those btw) of the current accounts for some of those deficit countries. I'll get to it shortly.
What German and Dutch and French capital did to the Southern Europeans it did not do to the Poles and Czechs and Slovaks etc. simply because they refused to spend said capital on consumption maintained by imports. Much of the capital that moved there was actually invested.
The scale of loans directed there were much smaller in scale. Today Poland's external debt is what 1/10th of that of Spain? In particular, their banks had access to loans only at higher rates. Which was good for them. They could absorb a large portion of those as productive investment, because the lenders who demanded higher rates also were more concerned that there be a productive application for the funds, capable of paying those rates. For everything there is a saturation point, and that includes foreign loans and even "foreign investment", typically but erroneously presented as always a good thing.
Both the people and the politicians of Southern Europe wanted the monetary policy and monetary strength of Germany but refused to accept the public sentiments and economic policy that has to come with that monetary policy.
They have to do the following: Embrace wage equality, embrace sustainability (translation: low growth) embrace policies and taxation that favors labor, saving and investing over consumption.
Sorry, but it is entirely false that these public sentiments were supposed to come with monetary union. I mean, why would anyone sign up for a monetary union if a condition to carry it out was "low growth"? That's the absolute opposite of what the union was sold on! And how are governments supposed to control consumption if they can't control their banks and the capital flows of their countries? Only by reducing wages to the point where it is clear even to the dumbest banks that any consumer lending will be too risky. But that doesn't add up with favouring labor in wages! If you truly favor labor (something which Germany clearly has not been doing!) you get higher consumption.
My point here is that economies are demand driven. Southern Europe and only Southern Europe can control how much capital it pulls from the north and how it it allocated.
How?
Could the southern governments have nationalized all banking and have them refused foreign loans? And forbidden foreign banks from coming up and offering loans? Nope, the EU forbade that. In fact, integration into the EU was the excuse used to privatize banks in my country, a disaster in the making which I remember quite well.
Could it have slapped customs duties on imported goods to inflate their prices and reduce demand? No.
Could it have raided VAT and prevented people from going abroad to buy in a country with lower taxes? No.
Could they have raised those and other taxes to curb consumer spending? Yes, theoretically, but imagine how well it would have gone: "you see, we must raise taxes because of this euro thing we just got the country into, without asking you people in any consultation, btw." Politically, it was impossible: the EU and the Euro were sold on the promise of better living conditions, and even with those (delivered through increased but unsustainable lending) the EU had its new treaties rejected in several national referendums. Before its present obvious crisis.Also, what would those governments do with the extra tax receipts? If they redistribute or reinvest it in unproductive stuff, it's the same (macroeconomically) as if they hadn't collected it. If they invested it on enterprises capable of actually producing and exporting goods (to avoid those trade deficits) they'd be held in violation of the competition rules of the EU!
Yes, lets have a look at Portugal in all its pre-Euro glory:
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...and Spain...
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...and, of course, Greece:
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That's current account balance starting in '67.
So, what did we see?
I see three graphs that back my blaming of the new institutional arrangements of the Maastricht Treaty and the Euro for the huge increases of the current account deficits of those countries.
The euro didn't come into being in 2002. Not even in 1999 when the exchange rates were fixed. The whole mad project started being implemented in 1993 with the treaty and became irreversible, with most of the the participants obvious, by the mid-90 when the membership criteria was settled. And, because capital flows within the EU had been "liberalized" back in 1990 this was all it took for the cross-border lending inside the future eurozone to take off. Which was politically encouraged, as it was seen then as a validation of the monetary union project: "you see, we're already having an impact, this thing is gonna work".
Then there are two possible consequences of that negative trade balance: Either you have your currency depriciated (which ends the consumption spree and makes the growth go poof) or you have a significant inflow of foreign capital - most likely in the form of private debt, which ends the consumption and corrects living standards and trade balances.
All the Euro did was to eliminate that choice.
No. What the Euro - and in fact we should say instead the Maastricht Treaty where it and EU wide capital deregulation were cooked up - did was to enable those trade deficits in the first place. Before things could get a little unbalanced and then it'd be time to settle the accounts back - some pain, but doable, especially as states still had available the whole usual rage of policies any sovereign state has. Now? Well, frankly the mess is such that no one seems to know what to do.