History questions not worth their own thread IV

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in a previous thread last year ı had opinionated the windows of Grumman's J2F was for the rear gunner . Turns out ı was wrong ; had ı been real ı now would be writing "never talk before establishing some sort of perspective and an idea on the size" a hundred times on a blackboard .

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that's two guys down there and the rear gunner actually doesn't step on their heads as ı had presumed he would . The magazine the picture originates also says a strecher could be carried .
 

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When did written language appear amongst the Germanic peoples of Magna Germania? I take it they had runic scripts of some kind, but did written texts only begin to appear as the area Christianized, and presumably monks and priests moved in? Or have there been written language there for much longer, but none/very little of it has survived?
 
When did written language appear amongst the Germanic peoples of Magna Germania? I take it they had runic scripts of some kind, but did written texts only begin to appear as the area Christianized, and presumably monks and priests moved in? Or have there been written language there for much longer, but none/very little of it has survived?

Yeah, pretty much. Some disparate runic inscriptions dating back to the first and second centuries, BC, but nothing really substantial in the Germanic language families until Wulfila's Gothic bible in the 4th century, and then after that nothing until we start getting substantial Old English and Old High German texts in the 8th and 9th centuries.
 
Is that pretty much there was no written language, or pretty much there was writing but it's been lost over the years?
 
Is that pretty much there was no written language, or pretty much there was writing but it's been lost over the years?
Would anybody be able to tell the difference?
 
Would anybody be able to tell the difference?

Well, there might have been someone mentioning their ability to write. More than anything, I'm curious about when writing starts to appear within the boundaries of Modern Germany. Presumably, since the western European alphabets are so similar, it must have been spread around by the Church, but just curious if it was new thing, or a known replacement. But certainly there's a chance we'll never know.
 
Is that pretty much there was no written language, or pretty much there was writing but it's been lost over the years?

Pretty much what Dachs said. What we do have from before the birth of Christ is just a couple bone and stone fragments from Skåne, Jutland, and Holstein with runic inscriptions on them. Again, the earliest stuff of this we have is the 2nd or 3rd centuries.

If you properly understood the current state of understanding of the Germanic language diaspora prior to the advent of the Goths you'd actually be rather impressed we even have that much to go on.
 
What do you think about the so called Lusatian Culture? I have read various theories about those people. One say that they were of Italo-Celtic origin, another one that they were one of the proto-Germanic peoples (apart from those in Scandinavia) and another one - that they were one of the proto-Slavic peoples.

Perhaps they could also have nothing to do with either of these 3 mentioned groups as well.

What are the main pros and cons for each theory?
 
What do you think about the so called Lusatian Culture? I have read various theories about those people. One say that they were of Italo-Celtic origin, another one that they were one of the proto-Germanic peoples (apart from those in Scandinavia) and another one - that they were one of the proto-Slavic peoples.

Perhaps they could also have nothing to do with either of these 3 mentioned groups as well.

What are the main pros and cons for each theory?

I thought Lusatians were Slavic Sorbs.:confused: And they're still around.
 
Do we know anything about junkies in ancient Rome? I don't mean mere drug-addiction, which is something universal, but if there was a phenomenon that may compare to the modern-day junkie, that's to say, people living only for drugs.
 
No - I am talking about Ancient so called "Lusatian Culture" from the Bronze Age (it is called "Lusatian" because its first remains were discovered in territory which we call Lusatia - but it in fact it extended much further to the East, and not that much further to the West).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lusatian_culture

Biskupin is one of settlements of the Lusatian Culture, discovered by archaeologists:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biskupin
 
What happened in French colonies during the French revolution?
 
What happened in French colonies during the French revolution?

The most impacted colony was Haiti. It was the richest colony in the west indies, a sugar colony packed with slaves. The revolution called for all men to be equal in front of the law and of course freedom. In 1794 France abolished slavery in all of its possessions. The Haitian slaves were free for a while but they still had to work on the plantations. But in 1802 Napoleon needed cash to fund his colonies so he reinstated slavery and thus the free colored men of the Republic became slaves of the Empire once more. And this led to the Haitian slave revolt. I'm not really sure about the Louisiana area, but that probably didn't cause as much trouble because there were more white men (Haiti was 90% black) and it was later sold.
 
Louisiana was also extremely sparsely populated until the Americans got there, save for New Orleans, which was the part of it that they were really interested in: it gave control of the mouth of the Mississippi, and therefore allowed the occupier to secure the flow of goods up that river.
 
What happened in French colonies during the French revolution?

Saint-Pierre-et-Miquelon was destroyed.
In 1793 a significant number of royalists emigrated to Nova Scotia. Shortly after the British occupied the islands and deported the remaining population to Nova Scotia and the islands were takenb over by British fishermen. A few years later, the French Navy came, deported the British and destroyed the settlements. After which both sides abandoned the islands until French fisherman returned following the Napoleonic Wars (and settlement promptly resumed with the economy providing local support to the French fishing fleet).
 
What are the main pros and cons for each theory?
Con: automatically associating material culture with linguistics or ethnicity is intrinsically a fool's errand
 
Con: automatically associating material culture with linguistics or ethnicity is intrinsically a fool's errand

Yes - material cultures could be multi-linguistic and multi-ethnical (i.e. their scope could be wider than just territory inhabited by one ethnic or linguistic group). There is also such a theory about the Lusatian Culture, I forgot to mention it (or maybe I did, when I wrote, that the other 3 theories can all be wrong).

So here we have one "pros" for this 4th (or 5th maybe?) theory.

Especially, that the Lusatian Culture was actually not monolithic / homogenous - there was some difference between its Eastern Branch and its Western Branch.

There is a theory that these two Branches of the Lusatian Culture originated from two earlier Pre-Lusatian and Trzciniecka Cultures - but there is also a lot of evidence that both Branches had very considerable influence on each other and were mutually interfusing.

IIRC, there was also a northern "sub-branch" - near the Baltic Coast. People in that area seemed to be more militarized (e.g. they were using chariots).
 
Yeah, pretty much this. The problem with modern theories on the disapora of the Germanic language family is that the divisions linguists have perceived in their models and comparative studies (namely, the division of Germanic into Ingvaeones, Istvaeones, and Irminones) has little to no correlation to any anthropological or archaeological data so far constructed. For the most part correlating language groups to defined archaeological cultures, while interesting, is, at least among Germanic languages, a rather pointless affair.
 
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