Discussion in 'World History' started by Plotinus, Apr 13, 2012.
A continuation of the original and the two sequels.
Were koreans part of mongolic peoples before conquered by the Mongol Invasion or had the Koreans possibly similarities to any of white European peoples ethnogenetric?
I have to admit, that definitely wasn't worth its own thread.
Come one Dachs, I have a question the first "conquest" of Constantinople was during the 4th crusade not the conquest of Mehmed II.
Another one, other than the crusades that we all know what other crusades were launched? Several were launched against Bosnia, I know the Teutonic knights, any other?
Define conquest. The city fell more than a few times during Byzantine civil wars, but never to a protracted siege and assault, always by surprise - until 1204.
Yes I meant fell in a siege, thank you.
No. Koreans are part of the Ural-Altaic Linguistic group, but that's very broad and doesn't mean anything in particular. Korean society was highly Sinofied by the time the Mongols arrived.
As taillesskangaru and I proved in a previous thread, the Korean Super-Empire and the Aryan Super-Empire were one and the same, as proven by the fact that the name "Korean" sounds awfully similar to the word "Aryan." This, plus some maps pulled from Google image search, conclusively proved our theory.
Nobody say anything.
Sinofied think you mean in buddism. But also confucianistic. I suppose beiing origined uralicaltairic like American Indians migrating over iced Bering Street is original look which is not far and very similar to mongolic look
When was the first chocolate chip cookie made?
Wikipedia has an answer, with a reference. Why would you doubt it?
Admittedly, the reference is to a picture book for 10-year olds.
A show on Food Network also agreed with the Wakefield origin story, but people have been throwing everything under the sun into tarts, cakes and cookies since the inception of baking, so I do doubt she actually was the first.
You need to take into account that chocolate is actually a fairly new invention in the West, though. The only reason we have chocolate bars and blocks today is that the guy who founded Lindt chocolate was irresponsible enough to leave the machines running over the weekend, thus producing the first chocolate in Europe that could actually be eaten as it is today, rather than simply being a brittle candy or used as drinking chocolate. It's likely that Wiki is correct.
Yeah, but wasn't that in the middle of second half of the 1800s? That leaves like 40-60 years there. I'm not saying earlier cookies were exactly the same as the famous Toll House ones, but I have a hard time believing no one threw chunks of chocolate in their cookies before that. Not that any of that matters anyways. Wakefield was the one who wrote her recipe down.
About 1872, from memory. Don't have my book here with me. Yeah, it's entirely possible someone else tried it first, but, as you said, it doesn't really matter. Wakefield was the first to write down a recipe, that's where modern choc-chipp cookies come from.
How much would modern Europe be had Leopold von Hohenzollern taken the Spanish throne following the Revolution of 1868 in Spain?
Could you rephrase that so it's a bit clearer?
I messed up a word.
How different would modern Europe be had Leopold von Hohenzollern taken the Spanish throne following the Revolution of 1868 in Spain?
Ah, well that makes much more sense. I'm certainly not an expert here. My tentative thoughts are that it wouldn't have shaken up the major events of Europe, although Spain might have had a different role in these events (depending on the degree that the Monarchy could control Spanish involvement in these events).
Separate names with a comma.