Smidlee said:
most modern translations( most are interpretations not translations ; there is a big difference) can be crap too. I got other famous translations as well as all of them said the same thing. I notice you haven't told what translation you are using . Also I Use Strong Concordance which give me the Hebrew . the word "clan" is a someone interprrtation and not a translation of the Hebrews words in this passage. So your attack on the KJV is vain with Strong's concordance giving each word in Hebrew and Greek.
the word "little" is the Hebrew word "tsaowr" means least ,little,small, young
the word "among" is the Hebrew word "beyn" means among,asunder,at,between
the word "thousands" is the Hebrew word "eleph" means thousands.
P.S. i like to know what so called translation you found this from and what Hebrew word is being uses for the word "clan";..."eleph"???
Does any of your famous translation use the word ‘you’ instead of ‘thou’

? For example New International Version, New American Standard Version and English Standard Version all use the word ‘clan’ instead of ‘thousands’, but ‘thousands’ are not necessarily a wrong translation. In the context of the text, ‘thousands' could easily be interpreted as meaning the same as ‘clans’. My attack on the King James Version is not specific to this verse. I just find the KJV a generally poor translation, and prefer not to take it too seriously. Young’s Literal Translation uses the word ‘chiefs’ instead of 'clans/thousands', so I suppose that is the literal meaning of the original word. To me ‘chief’ sounds more like the head of a clan than a town, but let’s pretend that you are right. In that case Jesus did not fulfill this prophecy. Jesus didn’t come from Bethlehem like the prophecy says. In that case he should have been called Jesus from Bethlehem, but as we know he was instead called Jesus from Nazareth. So let’s stretch it further and assume that the prophecy really refers to the birthplace of Messiah. Then Jesus cannot be the Messiah because he was not born in Bethlehem. The birth story in Luke is obviously fictional because it doesn’t make sense. There was no census around that time. Such an event would certainly be noticed and reported by several Roman government officials and historians. Especially if it happened the way Luke describes it. Luke claims that Joseph couldn’t register in the village he lived in, but had to travel all the way to Bethlehem, because that was his place of origin. But if Bethlehem was his place of origin, why didn’t he have some friends or family there who he could stay with? Such an event would be a great opportunity for a reunion! But no, Joseph chooses to stay in a stable belonging to a total stranger, so it doesn’t seem like he had ever lived in Bethlehem himself. So why should he go there to register? Of course Luke gives us the answer: It is because he is of king David’s house. It seems like he traces his place of origin several hundreds years back. With that policy this census would require a lot of people to travel very far to register. That would certainly cause chaos, not just in Bethlehem, but all over the Empire. How could Luke be the only one who reported such a major event? Maybe all the other accounts were miraculously destroyed? Anyway, I seriously doubt that the Romans would be able to organize this costly operation, and for what purpose? Again the Bible gives us the answer. The Romans would use the census for tax purposes. So why would a taxman want a list of people who had their origin in his neighborhood, but who doesn’t live there anymore? Such a list is totally useless for a taxman! He would rather want a list over all the people who currently lives and works in his neighborhood, so that he can use that list to make sure that everybody pays their taxes. Therefore the Romans would demand Joseph to register in Nazareth where he lived, and that would be where Jesus was born.
CurtSibling said:
I won't be looking at any bibles, as I have made my conclusions:
So what is the point in bringing you evidence, when you already have made your conclusions and won’t even take a look at the evidence I provide?
CurtSibling said:
But I am sure even you can see the advantage to latter-day
religious leaders, changing holy texts to suit their agenda.
I don’t see what advantage Jewish leaders (who believe that Jesus was not the Messiah), would get by changing their own holy texts in order to strengthen the Christians claim that Jesus was the Messiah

. But if Christians somehow managed to fool the Jews to do this, why didn’t they do it properly? As far as I know there are no obvious Messiah prophecies in the Old Testament, and most of the few passages that can be interpreted as Messiah prophecies are at best only partly fulfilled by Jesus. If Christians really changed the Old Testament, they would definitely have put in some more convincing prophecies.
CurtSibling said:
In that they can tell you what they wish you to believe.
And you are not going to challenge them, are you?
How can you say this? Haven’t you noticed that I have tried to challenge supposed Messiah prophecies many times in this thread? Why do you always have to judge me by your sick imagination of a stereotyped Christian?
CurtSibling said:
We both also know you have nothing to back your claim up.
A bunch of metaphoric stories are not enough to convince.
What claim are you talking about here? The claim that the Christian Jesus-myth is based on a historical person? That discussion does not belong in this thread, so please don’t bring that up here again.
CurtSibling said:
How typical.
In other words, I have you at a disadvantage and you now
use the 'spam accusation' tactic to try and shut me up?
Nice try, but I am merely asking questions.
If you find it uncomfortable, I cannot help that.
Discussing something that has nothing to do with the thread topic is spam, but I don’t want to shut you up. A while back I started a separate thread just for you to discuss the historical ‘evidence’ of Jesus, but you never showed up

. The thread is still at the second page in the history forum if you have changed your mind, but I suppose that is something you never do?
Plotinus said:
The Dead Sea Scrolls come from approximately the time of Jesus, probably a few years later. They were written by a group who almost certainly had nothing to do with Jesus but were in fact probably associated with the Essenes. There is some speculation that Jesus had something to do with the Essenes but it is based on very flimsy evidence. The Dead Sea Scrolls do indicate that much of the Old Testament, as we have it, is as it was in the time of Jesus. There is no serious doubt otherwise except by polemicists with a personal agenda to push, who are uninterested in actual evidence. The views I cite are not those of Christians or Jews, among whom I do not count myself, but experts.
So not all the Dead Sea Scrolls predate Jesus.

What an embarrassing mistake. I should have investigated my sources better. Please forgive me Curt! Anyway, great post Plotinus!
