CurtSibling said:
You cite 'plenty of evidence' - Then let's see it!
The Dead Sea Scrolls predates Christ and they contain all but one of the books in the Old Testament. There are no significant differences between the texts in the Dead Sea Scrolls and the texts in the Old Testament in the Christian Bibles. But I guess you don’t believe in carbon dating and such stuff either? In that case, take a look at the Jewish “Bible”. It includes all the books in the Protestant Old Testament. Guess what, there are no significant differences there either. If Christians have added Messiah prophecies to the Old Testament to prove that Jesus was the Messiah, the Jews must have added the same prophecies to their scriptures. Why on earth would they do that?
When I say no significant differences I mean that the meaning of the texts are the same, but of course there are some minor differences. Especially in how some names are spelled and stuff like that, and of course there are some poor translations around too.
CurtSibling said:
You are welcome to think whatever you wish, Pikachu.
We all know what side you are on, so I do not expect you to
do anything other than stack the odds in your favour.
And which side do you all know that I am on? But you are right; I try to stack the odds in favor of the truth.
CurtSibling said:
What you forget to mention in you revised version of our bast 'debate' was
that you refused to provide any proof othe than that produced by christian
sources or those of 'non-christians' that are obviously edited by religionists.
That is your words, but our past ‘debate’ was more like spamming up an otherwise interesting thread than a serious debate. Let’s not repeat that shameful behavior here.
NeoDemocrat said:
Because God did it and he was all powerful supposedly.
I believe that he was the actual son of Joseph and that god jus picked him to be without sin and that stuff.
There are certain unchristian sources that suggest that Jesus was a bastard son. I think it is likely that Jesus was a product of adultery. The virgin birth story could be a way to cover up these shameful circumstances.
puglover said:
Lineage of David, born in betlehem, born of a virgin, a sacrifice for the sins of the world, soldiers gambling over his clothes, his last words, the crucifiction, etc. etc.
Where in the Old Testament do I find these prophecies?
Born in Bethlehem I suppose is Micah 5:2, but as I said, it refers to a clan rather than a birthplace. And historically Jesus was probably not even born in Bethlehem.
Born of a virgin is maybe the King James Version of Isaiah 7:14. It says virgin because of a poor translation of a word that usually means young woman or unmarried woman. That a young or unmarried woman will have a child is not a very convincing prophecy.
I have not been able to identify the rest of those prophecies yet

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puglover said:
1. Immanuel means "son of god" IIRC. So yeah he was called the son of god.
Immanuel means ‘God with us’. As far as I know he was never called ‘God with us’, but he supposedly was God and he was with us, so in a way he was Immanuel. That doesn’t make him fulfill the prophecy however, because the prophecy says: “
You, young woman, will name him Immanuel.” Which she didn’t.
puglover said:
2. David was born in Bethlehem, I suppose that would mean he was in the clan of Bethlehem Ephratath. Jesus was of the lineage of David and born in Bethlehem, thus he was a member of the clan too. That's my best guess.
Wow, it seems like you might guessed right! It turns out that the father of David is called “
this Ephrathite from Bethlehem" in 1 Samuel 17:12. If David’s father was a member of the Bethlehem Ephrathah clan, then Jesus too could be a member of that clan, at least by adoption. It is a little strange to call the clan of the great king David for ‘seemingly insignificant among the clans of Judah‘ though

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puglover said:
3. God destroyed those nations eventually, but Israel was part of God's Eternal Kingdom, and they were his Chosen.
???
puglover said:
4. It says "the great and terrible day of the Lord" in my New American Standard.. And before it was obviously talking about the endtimes. This is not refering to the Messiah's first coming to Earth, but the second.
You are probably right. However Jesus himself says that Elijah had to come before the first coming of Messiah (Mathew 17:10-13 and Mark 9:11-13). Did Jesus make a mistake there?
Smidlee said:
there are many fulfilled prophecy about Jesus first coming which are loaded in the gospels themselves.
Yes, but most of them are not correctly loaded. Please give me references to where I find them in the Old Testament.
Smidlee said:
you are splitting hairs now . These is the same language we use sometimes when we say "America" we are referring to the people in America.
KJV reads "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Isreal ; whose going forth have been from of old, from everlasting." It easy to see that Micah is referring to a place and the people who of this place.
The King James Version is not a good translation. Most modern translations says “
insignificant among the clans of Judah” or “
the least among the families of Judah” or something like that. I believe that is closer to the meaning of the original texts than the King James translation.
Smidlee said:
What did Jesus fulfill in his first coming ?: The Mosiac Laws of course Matthew 5:17 " Think not that I am come to destroy the law or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill"
So since Jesus said this he fulfilled an important prophecy? And where in the Old Testament can I find this prophecy anyway?
@Warman17: Thanks for your links

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