Really? If so, then it would seem fairer. Is a court actually likely to grant alimony to a man?El_Machinae said:She would. Maybe.
The point is that they have equal share in their joint efforts. The resizing is due to the fact that the numbers of their joint effort have changed.
Their joint efforts presumably ceased with the divorce, so why are events after the divorce relevant?
My point is that there is still no evidence that she "bought shares in" (made an economic contribution to) her husband's career.This is why she doesn't get half his salary, but a portion of it