Gustave5436
Emperor
- Joined
- Oct 5, 2008
- Messages
- 1,319
So my question is, in the last 150 years or so, if communism is supposed to overthrow industrialized nations, why have the only communist nations were agrarian ones?
Probably an availability bias. Agrarian states were weaker, and frequently more overstretched, making successful revolts more likely.
However, if we're speaking of social revolution in general (rather than Marxism-Leninism in particular) there are industrial examples, such as the Spanish Revolution.
Because, given democracy, and given progressive social reforms, capitalism makes virtually everyone so well off that only a very small minority of people want communism.
And yet the overwhelming majority of the human race lives in poverty. This is made all the more interesting by post-scarcity level technology which, if properly utilized, could allow everyone to be "so well off" as to make post-capitalist economics irrelevant.
The problem is that capitalism is an archaic ideology; ideal for the material conditions of the 19th century, not the 21st. Where scarcity does not naturally exist, it is forced to artificially create it; thus, capitalism is a reactionary force which retards social, technological, etc. development.