Vladimir Lenin

I think you forget what happened to the Bourbons. It involved a guillotine.
A guillotine that wasn't applied to the overwhelming majority of the Bourbon family or its cadet branches. And that wasn't applied to Louis XVII, who was allowed to live out his life until he died, allegedly of disease. Nor did it come down on his sister's neck. :dunno:
Karalysia said:
Wilhelm fled to the Netherlands and lived in exile and made no attempt to retake his throne. Nor to my knowledge did the Habsburgs.
Well, they did, kinda - the Habsburgs, anyway. Karl I never gave up his thrones and tried to retake power in Hungary twice before his death. Neither attempt was particularly serious.

By the way, if anybody thinks I'm going to pass a normative judgment on Lenin, he or she is insane.
 
Well in that case, let's just canonize Stalin and Mao at the same time -- if we're going down the road of moral relativism, then the topics of "what crimes did person X commit?" are entirely subjective and therefore pointless.

I know next to nothing about Mao and I don't really care for Maoism or the man himself from what I do know about it. Stalin absolutely should be reconsidered, as much of the West's "information" about him is false or misleading. Attentive scholarship will prove this.

Anyway, I didn't say he was a saint, I said he did what he had to do given the extremes of the situation. It sucks, but so did the situation, and the advancement of freedom is in the end more important than the lives of people actively fighting against that freedom.

Perhaps, though he didn't condemn Yakov Yurovsky whatsoever (unless you want to count a promotion to a comfortable position as some sort of slap on the wrist).

So you admit to mis-characterizing the information? Or were you wrong and you just looked it up?

Lenin, as well as Stalin after him, purposefully prevented food distribution from going to areas that he thought was politically rebellious in order to weaken their resolve.

I can think of no instance of Lenin doing this.

This happened after the civil war was over and there was enough food for everybody.

The only time there was "enough food for everybody" was in 1926, and even that argument is scant at best. It was the continuing food deficit that prompted Stalin to start forcing collectivization in 1928, after the dismal failure of 1927, when high prices encouraged many well-to-do peasants to eat all the food they produced rather than sell it to the cities in the north.

(The question remains, though, as to why the Soviet leadership should receive a comfortably nutritious lifestyle if Marxism is intended to be classless. Seems like the very definition of class warfare.)

Marxism is a political theory. Socialism is it put into practice. The Soviet leadership wasn't particularly "well off" as you characterize; they didn't live a luxurious lifestyle by any means. And, of course, I'm sure you're aware of the concept that the leadership of a country is more "valuable" so to speak than some muzhik in Tatarstan. They weren't anarchists, after all.

No, I have not read it, and I am indeed basing this citation off of a second-hand source. If I am incorrect or taking it out of its intended context, then please set me straight. If I get the time I will try to acquire the biography and skim through it.

I would be extremely surprised if Service cited as absurd a figure as that as he is generally more honest about things than certain other Russian "historians." I will check my copy of it.

It doesn't, hence why I purposefully added the word "intentional."

So why would you lump unintentional starvation deaths with supposed "intentional" ones, unless you were trying to inflate the number that Lenin was supposedly responsible for?

For one, I see no reason why peaceful opposition to the Reds (not counting the soldiers and terrorists in this category, obviously) should be executed.

And how many "peaceful" opposers to the Revolution were killed? Do you know? Or are you just speculating based on your gut?

Are ideas so dangerous?

Did the West ever suppress any ideologies? Did the Provisional Government not suppress Tsarist organs and movements before the Bolsheviks did?

Was freedom too much of a burden for the Soviets?

To them, there was no room for freedom of speech in as dire a situation as the Revolution was. Freedom meant the right to encourage counterrevolution, which is quite easy with an ignorant muzhik, just feed him a few simple lies and he can turn against his patrons like *that.* Apparently this is also true of us Americans as well...

Tell me, was Lenin justified in authorizing the Soviet war against Poland in order to spread the revolution to them?

I think Lenin was justified in authorizing the Red Army to repulse the Polish imperialist invasion, absolutely. Or can socialist nations now not defend themselves?

And in this sense, do you deny that Lenin was indeed very similar to Robespierre?

Of course not, for reasons stated above.

Two, the term "counter-revolutionaries" is irritatingly vague. As Lenin himself admitted that the masses were uselessly uneducated, he could've theoretically defined every single peasant in Russia that didn't initiate their own communions as counter-revolutionary for not being enthusiastic communists

Except that he didn't. So there must've been a more concrete definition of counter-revolutionary. I suspect that it had something to do with actively working against the Revolutionary movements and attacking the Bolshevik organs. You know, like trying to assassinate Lenin, or blowing up supply trains, or destroying all the public records before surrendering the building to the Reds, or distributing lots of alcohol to Red Guards and troops on duty.

. It wasn't useful to his interests to do so, but the point remains.

No it doesn't. You have no point.

And if you think I'm grasping for straws at this point, I point out that the Soviets had no interest in explicitly defining who exactly their enemies were; probably because that would jeopardize their self-given justifications for their mass executions,

Mere speculation. You have nothing to back any of this up.

I would respect this statement, if you didn't immediately follow it with:

Ah, so you don't like it when your bias is exposed? But then who does?

I'm not a "paladin of capitalism," nor does that in any way discredit my point. Even many modern Marxists try to draw distance from Leninism because they thought it was a failure, not just capitalism.

Like whom? I can think of a few laymen, but they distance themselves from him only in some respects, and only then because Lenin is perceived to be wrong by the public, not because he actually was. Which is not to say he was right about everything, since he certainly was mistaken about several things.

Beyond that, I'm not even sure I would call myself a capitalist; though I'm certainly not a Marxist.

I didn't say you were a capitalist. I said you defended capitalism, which is just as bad.

Its very simple; you can claim to occupy whatever gray area you wish but when the battle lines are drawn there are only two groups: reactionaries and revolutionaries. If you do not stand for the Revolution then you are against it.
Does that discredit me? So long as I can reasonably defend my arguments, I see no reason why it does.

When you reproduce anti-communist mishmash like what you have thus far, and purposefully misrepresent the facts, then yes, it does and should hurt your credibility, at least on the subject at hand.

So exiling people to hellish prisons is not as bad as cementing your own political authority? Fascinating.

And what hellish prisons did Lenin send people to? The "prison camps" in those days had eight hour shifts, decent lodging (for Russia, anyway), and the prisoners got effing paid. This is hardly a Stalinist GULAG camp we're talking about.

Though this is a bit beside the point, as I'm curious as to how you can call this a "grievous crime" while defending the Leninists, who did the exact same thing.

This is why you are not credible. The only people "repressed" by the Socialist regime were the 5% of population who as robber barons, capitalists, and counterrevolutionaries who were rightfully so.

Perhaps you will quibble about the difference between "imperial ambitions" and "class liberation," though I have difficulty making this distinction, seeing as how Lenin was quite glad to destroy Poland's liberty (which it spent over 100 years trying to acquire) in the interest of his socio-economic goals.

What the flying crap did Lenin do to Poland's liberty? How about the liberty of Belarus and Ukraine, which Poland sought to destroy when it started that war? I can think of no imperial ambitions by the Soviet Union or Revolutionary Russia. Ever. Socialism cannot be imperialist, because it does not conquer to extract wealth from other countries or make new markets for itself. It is contrary to the very definition of socialism to call it such. Unless you want to make the laughable accusation that the Bolsheviks were not socialist...

Not necessarily because absolute monarchy is an inherent crime. It could've been because they just really personally despised Nicholas. (I don't blame them.) Not that this was certainly the case, though it might've been.

How does that disprove what I said?

And no, I don't think it was "just because of Nicholas." This was by no means the first revolution or rising up in Russian history.

Nonetheless, the Poles that participated in the several anti-Romanov rebellions probably weren't very happy to be invaded by the Reds, so your point is moot.

I don't think the Ukrainians and Belorussians were happy to try and be forced into a Polish-led federation by force of arms. Or are Kiev and Minsk Poland's by divine right?
 
Stalin absolutely should be reconsidered, as much of the West's "information" about him is false or misleading. Attentive scholarship will prove this.
I think Lenin was justified in authorizing the Red Army to repulse the Polish imperialist invasion, absolutely.
The only people "repressed" by the Socialist regime were the 5% of population who as robber barons, capitalists, and counterrevolutionaries who were rightfully so.
What the flying crap did Lenin do to Poland's liberty? How about the liberty of Belarus and Ukraine, which Poland sought to destroy when it started that war? I can think of no imperial ambitions by the Soviet Union or Revolutionary Russia. Ever.

I have no interest with debating anybody so deluded to honestly think these things.
 
I have no interest with debating anybody so deluded to honestly think these things.

Go read an effing history book then. You'll find that the Poles started that war by invading the Ukraine and Belarus. They took Kiev in May 1920 from the Reds.

If you are so ignorant of the subject, then you shouldn't even be debating it.
 
Greetings,
How successful was Lenin with
1. a free universal health care system
2. guaranteeing the rights of women
3. educating Russians
4. stopping anti-semitism
5. stopping anti-homosexuality

Was he a blood thirsty dictator? Was he going to allow free and open elections? Did he kill "enemies of the workers?"

Basically, I want to know if all I have been told about him is a big lie.

As usual, thanks ahead of time!

Few of these acts survived him. The USSR was not a country ruled by law, but by whoever was in power. The doctors plot is one example where antisemitism was prominent. There was a period of idealism soon after the revolution but it quickly degenerated into simply power grabbing.
 
I have no interest with debating anybody so deluded to honestly think these things.

I agree.

I can't believe that someone honestly believe Russia/USSR had no imperial ambitions. Lenin, by far and away, wanted the pre-WW1 Russian border lands back. He also, towards the end of his regime, planned on setting up socialist governments in at least Poland and Germany. You don't think that Lenin anticipated taking advantage of the Polish-Soviet war to spread the USSR's boundaries into eastern Europe? Even in other foreign nations? You don't think he was constantly scheming to undermine the stability of European nations so that a communist regime, under his control, could be set up in Europe? Look up Comintern and tell me what you find.

And its funny that some people insist Poland wished to destroy the independence of Eastern Europe when they, in fact, wished to create a most just system of politics, with each of those nations becoming independent entities. Seems like the USSR didn't give a damn about those areas -- just ask the millions of Ukrainians that died at this time.

Face it: the Czar's bureaucracy was replaced by a much worst bureaucracy: the Communist Party.

Hell, you can even look forward in time: How about the Hitler-Stalin pact, carving up Poland? How about the USSR's occupation of the Baltic countries? Hell, read a friggin' history book and look up the dates 1948, 1954, and 1968!
 

You've just anointed yourself as a non-credible paladin of capitalism and right-wing historiography. I don't know if I can take you seriously from this point on. :lol:
 

Of course you do.

I can't believe that someone honestly believe Russia/USSR had no imperial ambitions. Lenin, by far and away, wanted the pre-WW1 Russian border lands back.

Yes he did. To extract from them resources and to create new private markets for Soviet companies? No. To save them from imperialism, from the West. The Western capitalist nations intervened and supported the bourgeoisie in those border nations in overthrowing indigenous-formed worker republics, and only by merit of the chaos of the Civil War did they get away with it.

He also, towards the end of his regime, planned on setting up socialist governments in at least Poland and Germany.

So? Why not include the Hungarian SSR in that list, too? It proves nothing, because you don't know what imperialism is.

You don't think that Lenin anticipated taking advantage of the Polish-Soviet war to spread the USSR's boundaries into eastern Europe?

Of course he did. But that is not imperial.

Even in other foreign nations? You don't think he was constantly scheming to undermine the stability of European nations so that a communist regime, under his control, could be set up in Europe? Look up Comintern and tell me what you find.

Don't talk to me like that, boy. You're the one who doesn't know what imperialism means.

And its funny that some people insist Poland wished to destroy the independence of Eastern Europe when they, in fact, wished to create a most just system of politics, with each of those nations becoming independent entities.

:lmao:

Do you know why it was called the "Union" of Soviet Socialist Republics? Because each one was legally autonomous. They could have declared independence at any time, since it was a voluntary federation. That's how they broke apart in 1989. You can't get more "just" a system than that.

And no, the Poles were not trying to create a "more just" system of politics, they were being blatantly imperialist, just like when they took part of Czechoslovakia in 1938. Luckily the Reds were there to stop them in 1920.

Seems like the USSR didn't give a damn about those areas -- just ask the millions of Ukrainians that died at this time.

You can thank the Cossacks for that.
Face it: the Czar's bureaucracy was replaced by a much worst bureaucracy: the Communist Party.

Yeah sure.

Hell, you can even look forward in time: How about the Hitler-Stalin pact, carving up Poland?

You, uh, don't know what that was about I take it? Because it wasn't "carving up Poland." The Polish government didn't have the sense to surrender to the Germans in Semptember 1939, they just fled the country. Unfortunately, they went to neutral Romania, who had no intention of being involved in anything, so they took the Poles into custody. With no government to negotiate with and the Polish "state" effectively ceasing to exist, what was to stop the Germans from rolling all the way to Belarus?

Let me ask you this: if the Soviets "invaded" Poland, then why did the Poles offer no resistance to them? Why did the League of Nations not decry their incursion, though they spoke out against German aggression? Why did Romania not enter the war against the Soviet Union, whom the two specifically had a defensive alliance against? Why did even the Polish government in exile eventually acknowledge that the Soviet occupation of the eastern parts of Poland was "just?"

Stop letting yourself be spoon-fed accepted "history."

How about the USSR's occupation of the Baltic countries?

Addressed above.

Hell, read a friggin' history book and look up the dates 1948, 1954, and 1968!

And those were examples of what, Soviet imperial ambitions? If the Eastern Bloc were "colonies," they were the best-treated colonies in history.
 
And its funny that some people insist Poland wished to destroy the independence of Eastern Europe when they, in fact, wished to create a most just system of politics, with each of those nations becoming independent entities. Seems like the USSR didn't give a damn about those areas -- just ask the millions of Ukrainians that died at this time.

Poland invaded Western Ukraine and Belorussia in 1920 because of the same reasons, which you blame USSR for - imperial ambitions. They wanted their former territories back, just as you said, Lenin "wanted the pre-WW1 Russian border lands back" And for the same reasons, these territories were captured back by the USSR in 1939.

The only people "repressed" by the Socialist regime were the 5% of population who as robber barons, capitalists, and counterrevolutionaries who were rightfully so.
To be fair, many innocent people suffered too, as in any other revolution.
 
Yes he did. To extract from them resources and to create new private markets for Soviet companies? No. To save them from imperialism, from the West. The Western capitalist nations intervened and supported the bourgeoisie in those border nations in overthrowing indigenous-formed worker republics, and only by merit of the chaos of the Civil War did they get away with it.
Do you know why it was called the "Union" of Soviet Socialist Republics? Because each one was legally autonomous. They could have declared independence at any time, since it was a voluntary federation. That's how they broke apart in 1989. You can't get more "just" a system than that.

As a native of Ukraine and Lithuania, I am extremely offended by this; I'm going give you the benefit of the doubt and assume you live in Russia and consequently are a victim of whitewashed education.
 
As a native of Ukraine and Lithuania, I am extremely offended by this; I'm going give you the benefit of the doubt and assume you live in Russia and consequently are a victim of whitewashed education.

I live in Maryland, the same as you. If you're offended then either you don't know history, or, well, you don't know history. As I said before, both Lithuania and Ukraine had had popular workers' groups declare their countries to be SSRs and submitted to the Petrograd Soviet's authority; most of the Ukraine during the Triumphal March of Soviet Power, and Lithuania in 1918, and again in 1919 after the Germans left. Both times they were suppressed or outright slaughtered by imperialist Germans or by bourgeoisie armed and aided by Western Capitalists. You want to talk about crimes against humanity, that should be among them. Oppression at its finest.

From wikipedia:

Just like all the Soviet Constitutions before, the 1977 Constitution preserved the right to secede from the Union for the republics; this provision would later play an important role in the dissolution of the Soviet Union.
 
I find it most interesting that saints - whether they be Christian or Communist - still inspire such undying belief in the faithful. A sad truth, I'm afraid... (Funny, by the way, that Communism gained so many more martyrs than Christianity ever did - in those that stood in its way, that is.)

And the OP wiki bit strangely omitted the sections on the Red Terror http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Red_Terror
Civil War and War Communism http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/War_Communism
 
Surely we could trust the Soviet Union to obey their constitution -- just as nowadays we trust the Democratic Republic of North Korea to hold fair elections.
 
Yes he did. To extract from them resources and to create new private markets for Soviet companies? No. To save them from imperialism, from the West. The Western capitalist nations intervened and supported the bourgeoisie in those border nations in overthrowing indigenous-formed worker republics, and only by merit of the chaos of the Civil War did they get away with it. So? Why not include the Hungarian SSR in that list, too? It proves nothing, because you don't know what imperialism is.

No, the USSR did not want imperial power for the resources of the land alone. The Communist party was smarter than that -- they used western imperialism as propaganda for the Proletariat (and that did have some weight, though that is for another discussion). The Communists wanted to control Europe from the inside, through political revolt spearheaded by the international socialist movement. the USSR wanted an imperial domain in Europe, commanded not by a king or monarch, but by the Communist party, which was drifting further and further away from its [perhaps] noble roots.

:lmao:

Do you know why it was called the "Union" of Soviet Socialist Republics? Because each one was legally autonomous. They could have declared independence at any time, since it was a voluntary federation. That's how they broke apart in 1989. You can't get more "just" a system than that.

What? A just system? You mean similar to the system they had in the Warsaw Pact? I'm pretty sure that if the USSR would react so violently in Hungary/Czech., that they would react with deadly efficiency in these 'republics'.

And no, the Poles were not trying to create a "more just" system of politics, they were being blatantly imperialist, just like when they took part of Czechoslovakia in 1938. Luckily the Reds were there to stop them in 1920.

They intended to create a system of independent nations in Eastern Europe that could unite against the intervention of Germany or, should I dare say, the Soviet Union.

You, uh, don't know what that was about I take it? Because it wasn't "carving up Poland." The Polish government didn't have the sense to surrender to the Germans in Semptember 1939, they just fled the country. Unfortunately, they went to neutral Romania, who had no intention of being involved in anything, so they took the Poles into custody. With no government to negotiate with and the Polish "state" effectively ceasing to exist, what was to stop the Germans from rolling all the way to Belarus?

The Polish government didn't have the sense? What? They held out because of empty promises from Britain and France that Poland would be supported in the war against German -- because they, believe it or not, valued their freedom!

I can tell which way your argument is leaning when you state that a nation didn't have the common sense to surrender their independence and freedom, and that it is legitimate for a neighboring nation to invade Poland instead of supporting her. Why didn't the USSR defend Poland, if it were so worried about Germany?

You don't consider the USSR invading Poland to support its own imperial ambitions? (note the lack of -ist at the end).

Let me ask you this: if the Soviets "invaded" Poland, then why did the Poles offer no resistance to them? Why did the League of Nations not decry their incursion, though they spoke out against German aggression? Why did Romania not enter the war against the Soviet Union, whom the two specifically had a defensive alliance against? Why did even the Polish government in exile eventually acknowledge that the Soviet occupation of the eastern parts of Poland was "just?"

Stop letting yourself be spoon-fed accepted "history."

Hmm, let's see...there's a major war between the League of Nations and a friggin' military powerhouse led by a mad dictator, who's bent on conquering the world -- I'm pretty sure the League had bigger things on its mind than to argue against the Soviet Union. Additionally, the Soviet Union was soon expelled from the League anyways.

And let's see, tiny Romania against big Russia. Poland's already dead, why bother fighting a war they cannot win?

Finally, when the USSR joined the Allies against Hitler, Poland had no choice but to claim the USSR's actions were just. Hmm...the future of our nation will eventually be in the hands of the advancing Soviets, so it might as well be beneficial to get on their good side. This is common sense really, not a sense of just policy.



And those were examples of what, Soviet imperial ambitions? If the Eastern Bloc were "colonies," they were the best-treated colonies in history.

They were not colonies. They were occupied because it provided more political/military power to the Communist party.

No, the USSR was not an imperialist nation, a la the 19th century Western European nations. It was an imperial nation, vying to increase its political power at the expense of others.

http://www.thefreedictionary.com/imperial

2. Ruling over extensive territories

Definition of imperial.
 
Its okay to squirm when the ground below you crumbles.

Oh, well is it okay to squirm when you're sent to forced labor camps in the interest of a classless society?

Actually, forgive me. I'm basing my information on the Soviets of my decadent western education. All educated people know communists can do no wrong.
 
No, the USSR did not want imperial power for the resources of the land alone. The Communist party was smarter than that -- they used western imperialism as propaganda for the Proletariat (and that did have some weight, though that is for another discussion). The Communists wanted to control Europe from the inside, through political revolt spearheaded by the international socialist movement. the USSR wanted an imperial domain in Europe, commanded not by a king or monarch, but by the Communist party, which was drifting further and further away from its [perhaps] noble roots.

Fascinating. And how, might I ask, have you come by this information?

What? A just system? You mean similar to the system they had in the Warsaw Pact?

Warsaw Pact was a defensive treaty not a political constitution.

I'm pretty sure that if the USSR would react so violently in Hungary/Czech., that they would react with deadly efficiency in these 'republics'.

Yet they did not react violently when Yugoslavia actively rebelled from the Eastern Bloc. Why is that?

Perhaps there were other things at work in 1956 and 1968 that you do not understand. Or choose not to.

They intended to create a system of independent nations in Eastern Europe that could unite against the intervention of Germany or, should I dare say, the Soviet Union.

Yes its always important to defend oneself from a state with no navy no air force and an army of 100,000.

The Polish government didn't have the sense? What? They held out because of empty promises from Britain and France that Poland would be supported in the war against German -- because they, believe it or not, valued their freedom!

Then why did they flee?

Also, they left well after it was very clear that the British and French were not going to help them. And, of course, you surrender - like the rest of the occupied nations eventually did - because if you don't then your state effectively ceases to be. As Poland did in 1939.
I can tell which way your argument is leaning when you state that a nation didn't have the common sense to surrender their independence and freedom, and that it is legitimate for a neighboring nation to invade Poland instead of supporting her. Why didn't the USSR defend Poland, if it were so worried about Germany?

Because it had a non-aggression treaty with Germany?
You don't consider the USSR invading Poland to support its own domain imperial? (note the lack of -ist at the end).

No. And the lack of an "ist" suffix doesn't change the meaning of the word.

Hmm, let's see...there's a major war between the League of Nations

League of Nations was not at war.

and a friggin' military powerhouse led by a mad dictator, who's bent on conquering the world -- I'm pretty sure the League had bigger things on its mind than to argue against the Soviet Union

Then why did it argue with the Nazi German madman? If they're so worried about it, then why did they pick a fight with the madman conquering the world?

Additionally, the Soviet Union was soon expelled from the League anyways.

But it wasn't at the time, so the point stands.
And let's see, tiny Romania against big Russia. Poland's already dead, why bother fighting a war they cannot win?

Why bother to have the treaty at all?

Finally, when the USSR joined the Allies against Hitler, Poland had no choice but to claim the USSR's actions were just.

The claim came before then, during the non-aggression days.

Hmm...the future of our nation will eventually be in the hands of the advancing Soviets, so it might as well be beneficial to get on their good side. This is common sense really, not a sense of just policy.

Not really, since the part of Poland occupied by the Reds was incorporated into the Soviet Union, and the Polish government in exile was pretty anti-communist.

They were not colonies. They were occupied because it provided more political/military power to the Communist party.

The Communist Party is not some monolithic entity run by Moscow trying to overturn law and order around the world, you know. There were often rather nasty disagreements between the Eastern Bloc nations and between them and the Soviet Union; Honecker got rather nasty with Gorbachev when he tried to get them to adopt similar "reforms" to his perestroika.

No, the USSR was not an imperialist nation, a la the 19th century Western European nations. It was an imperial nation, vying to increase its political power at the expense of others.

At the expense of the capitalist nations, oppressing their population. The communist governments in power understood that united they stood, divided they fell, a very real possibility when beset by a stronger, more advanced enemy with greater resources and an active desire to slaughter you all. As I said, they were not imperial.
 
Why didn't the USSR defend Poland, if it were so worried about Germany?

Because all Soviet attempts to isolate Hitler and create a mutual defence alliance between Britain, France, Poland and USSR in 1939, failed. Largely because of Polish position not to sign any security agreement which has Soviet signature.
 
Yes he did. To extract from them resources and to create new private markets for Soviet companies? No. To save them from imperialism, from the West. The Western capitalist nations intervened and supported the bourgeoisie in those border nations in overthrowing indigenous-formed worker republics, and only by merit of the chaos of the Civil War did they get away with it.
I think we can all agree that Lenin was expansionistic. Whether that qualifies as imperialistic is literally a matter of semantics. Lenin certainly had a different definition of imperialism than the West; it was an essay on imperialism that catapulted him to fame, if I remember correctly.


So? Why not include the Hungarian SSR in that list, too? It proves nothing, because you don't know what imperialism is.



Of course he did. But that is not imperial.



Don't talk to me like that, boy. You're the one who doesn't know what imperialism means.
(bolding mine)

Well, this is going well.

:lmao:

Do you know why it was called the "Union" of Soviet Socialist Republics? Because each one was legally autonomous. They could have declared independence at any time, since it was a voluntary federation. That's how they broke apart in 1989. You can't get more "just" a system than that.
They broke apart once the Soviet Union was led by a man who was unwilling to force them to remain part of it. Lithuania, Latvia and Estonia certainly did not want membership, and there were mass rallies begging Gorbachev to allow them to leave years before the dissolution of the USSR. While some nations actively desired to enter and remian in the USSR, others "volunteered" in the same manner as a woman "volunteers" for sex at gunpoint.

And no, the Poles were not trying to create a "more just" system of politics, they were being blatantly imperialist, just like when they took part of Czechoslovakia in 1938. Luckily the Reds were there to stop them in 1920.
This is true.

You, uh, don't know what that was about I take it? Because it wasn't "carving up Poland." The Polish government didn't have the sense to surrender to the Germans in Semptember 1939, they just fled the country. Unfortunately, they went to neutral Romania, who had no intention of being involved in anything, so they took the Poles into custody. With no government to negotiate with and the Polish "state" effectively ceasing to exist, what was to stop the Germans from rolling all the way to Belarus?

Let me ask you this: if the Soviets "invaded" Poland, then why did the Poles offer no resistance to them? Why did the League of Nations not decry their incursion, though they spoke out against German aggression? Why did Romania not enter the war against the Soviet Union, whom the two specifically had a defensive alliance against? Why did even the Polish government in exile eventually acknowledge that the Soviet occupation of the eastern parts of Poland was "just?"


Cheezy, you're making me sad. You should know better than this. The Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact most certainly had provisions for the carving up of Poland and Eastern Europe. One of Germany's pretexts for war was that the Russians seized part of Rumania that was not allocated to them by the agreement.

The League of Nations didn't decry the Soviet incursion into Poland because, at the time, it genuinely believed Soviet pronouncements that it was taking Polish territory in order to protect the inhabitants from Germany. Never mind the fact that there was open and public cooperation between the German and Soviet militaries in Poland. The League of Nations was also wary of pushing the Soviets even further into the Axis camp. They later denounced the Soviet invasion of Finland, which proved that the Soviets were expanding their territory, not merely creating a buffer zone for legitimate defensive purposes.

The Poles offered little - there was some - resistance to the Soviets because they genuinely didn't know if the Soviets were invading or coming to their aid. I'm sure the officers who died in the Katyn massacre later regretted the decision to stand down.

The Polish government-in-exile acknowledged the Soviet occupation of Eastern Poland as just in exchange for guarantees of free elections after the war, and pressure from the British government, after the USSR became an Allied nation. It had nothing to do with genuine belief in the justness of the Soviet invasion.

Rumania didn't enter the war against the Soviet Union because it wasn't stupid. if you're caught between two giants, do you intentionally piss one or the other off? Rumania was trying to survive by acceding to the demands of two Great Powers and their allies. As it was, it still ended up losing large tracts of territory to both the Axis and USSR.

Why would the Polish government surrender? Better to leave and do its best to organise resistance than to stay and likely be executed. Much of the government went on to London to do just that. Not all of its members were detained in Rumania, and most that were detained were later released.

What was to stop the Germans rolling all the way to Belarus? The pre-existing provisions to carve up the country in the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, that's what. If the Soviets hadn't invaded Poland, Germany would have indeed taken the whole country. Of course, if the USSR hadn't signed the Pact with Germany to begin with, then there's a good chance Germany would have lost the war in far less time, without millions of Russian casualties. once the Pact was signed, it was doubtful the Germans would take territory not allocated to them in the Pact. They wanted Russia on their side, or at least neutral. They didn't want a two-front war, certainly not at this stage.

Stop letting yourself be spoon-fed accepted "history."
I could just as easily tell you to stop letting yourself be spoon-fed Stalinist revisionist history, which is conclusively proven false.

Addressed above.
In the secret provisions of the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, you mean?

Surely we could trust the Soviet Union to obey their constitution -- just as nowadays we trust the Democratic Republic of North Korea to hold fair elections.
A good analogy. The Soviet constitution was probably the most liberal, progressive constitution in history. Too bad they never lived up to it.
 
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