Antisemitism

Should Jews be singled out by the use of "antisemitism" word?


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Uh? This is relevant - how? The original reason for inventing the word antisemitism and who coined the phrase has little to do with current usage.

Uh? This is relevant - how? The original reason for inventing the word Slav and who coined the phrase has little to do with current usage.
 
"Slavs" originated from a Greco-Latin corruption of "Sloveni", which was how at least some of Proto-Slavic-speakers called themselves.

BTW according to Jordanes and Procopius, people who spoke that language which we call Proto-Slavic, had at least three different names.

One of branches of speakers of that language was known as the Antes. So "Slavic" - "Antic" and "Slavs" - "Ants" can be used interchangeably.
 
Jordanes wrote about Slavic-speaking nations in the 500s AD:

"(...) Within these rivers lies Dacia, encircled by the lofty Carpathians as by a crown. Near their left ridge, which inclines toward the north, and beginning at the source of the Vistula, the populous race of the Venethi dwell, occupying a great expanse of land. Though their names are now dispersed amid various clans and places, yet they are chiefly called Sclaveni and Antes. The abode of the Sclaveni extends from the city of Noviodunum and the lake called Mursianus [marshes at the juncture of the Drava and the Danube] to the Dniester, and northward as far as the Vistula. (...) The Antes (...) dwelling above the curve of the sea of Pontus [Black Sea coast near Odessa], spread from the Dniester to the Dnieper, rivers that are many days' journey apart. (...)"

Procopius wrote about Slavic-speaking nations in the 500s AD:

"(...) For these nations, the Sclaveni and the Antes, are not ruled by one man, but they have lived from of old under a democracy, and consequently everything which involves their welfare, whether for good or for ill, is referred to the people. It is also true that in all other matters, practically speaking, these two barbarian peoples have had from ancient times the same institutions and customs. For they believe that one god, the maker of lightning, is alone lord of all things, and they sacrifice to him cattle and all other victims. (...) When they enter battle, the majority of them go against their enemy on foot carrying shields and javelins in their hands, but they never wear corselets. Indeed, some of them do not wear even a shirt or a cloak, but gathering their trews up as far as to their private parts they enter into battle with their opponents. And both the two peoples have also the same language [Late Common Slavic], an utterly barbarous tongue. Nay further, they do not differ at all from one another in appearance. For they are all exceptionally tall and stalwart men, while their bodies and hair are neither very fair or blonde, nor indeed do they incline entirely to the dark type, but they are all slightly ruddy in color. And they live a hard life, giving no heed to bodily comforts, just as the Massagetae do. (...) In fact, the Sclaveni and the Antes actually had a single name in the remote past; for they were both called Spori in olden times, because, I suppose, living apart one man from another, they inhabit their country in a sporadic fashion. And in consequence of this very fact they hold a great amount of land; for they alone inhabit the greatest part of the northern bank of the Danube. So much then may be said regarding these peoples. (...)"
 
Uh? This is relevant - how? The original reason for inventing the word Slav and who coined the phrase has little to do with current usage.

I expected such an intellectually lazy comparison, and I was not disappointed.

First of all, it was not word Slav that was invented, but "slave" based on Slav.
Secondly, it is not important WHY was a word invented. In both cases. I don't know who coined the word slave based on Slavs. That's irrelevant. What's important is that it remained in usage. It is also not important why did he do it. In fact I think in such cases it comes from general use and can not be attributed to a single person, especially since it is not modern times, but if you blindely insist on comparing it anyway, it is not important what were the intentions of the guy who "invented" it. I don't think he had any intentions, it's just like we start to use a name of a brand that dominates the market of a tool for that tool... but anyway, it's of very secondary importance whether he wanted it to be a slur, or perhaps au contraire, he wanted to point to the racist tendencies of the early Medieval society by exposing them by this word... :rolleyes: and the same, whether the guy who invented the term antisemitism made it with good intentions or the other way round, it makes little difference.
 
So Ant-Man is interchangeable with Slav-Man? :huh:

Yes! I wonder is there any etymological connection between the "Antes" (people) and word "ants" ??? :confused:

Maybe the Antes were so numerous, that these little hard-working animals were named after them?

But then what about the "Germans" (people) and "germs", or "germane" ???

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What do we know about the origins and history of Jewish Levites ???

They stand out genetically. A lot of them have R1a CTS6 haplogroup (formed 3900 years ago, TMRCA 2900 years ago), which is one of sub-branches of the Iranic branch of R1a - Z2124. So, ironically, it seems that the Levites are Aryan!

Check the Iranic branch Z2124: http://s17.postimg.org/hsnaex6xb/R1a_tree.png

And here a more detailed tree leading from Z2124 to CTS6:

R_CTS6.png
 
I expected such an intellectually lazy comparison, and I was not disappointed.

First of all, it was not word Slav that was invented, but "slave" based on Slav.
Secondly, it is not important WHY was a word invented. In both cases. I don't know who coined the word slave based on Slavs. That's irrelevant. What's important is that it remained in usage. It is also not important why did he do it. In fact I think in such cases it comes from general use and can not be attributed to a single person, especially since it is not modern times, but if you blindely insist on comparing it anyway, it is not important what were the intentions of the guy who "invented" it. I don't think he had any intentions, it's just like we start to use a name of a brand that dominates the market of a tool for that tool... but anyway, it's of very secondary importance whether he wanted it to be a slur, or perhaps au contraire, he wanted to point to the racist tendencies of the early Medieval society by exposing them by this word... :rolleyes: and the same, whether the guy who invented the term antisemitism made it with good intentions or the other way round, it makes little difference.

This is why we can't have nice things.
 
But then what about the "Germans" (people) and "germs", or "germane" ???

Poles, Swedes,... er... Turks... Chinese...

The Irish, of course, plainly derive their name from "ire". And they are sometimes quite angry, it has to be said.
 
Irish are greek (well, the highborn were), cause 'Danu something' clearly ties to 'Danaens', which is the homeric term for Greeks. Solved :)

Also, Lithuanians are mad stones.
 
Also, Lithuanians are mad stones.

In greek Lithuania sounds like it means 'boredom of a stone' :D

(ania is madness when stressed on the the first 'a', but it is boredom when stressed on the 'i', as in Lithuania)

It could also mean that even a stone would get bored being around that country?
 
(ania is madness when stressed on the the first 'a', but it is boredom when stressed on the 'i', as in Lithuania)

I've never heard it pronounced the boredom way, only the madness way. But then I'm not a native.
 
Boredom is very close to madness.

At times I've been so bored I could feel my brain oozing out of my ears. And, let me tell you, it has a kind of waxy consistency. And niffs a bit, too.
 
I think the hatred against any race is wrong. Its time we all realised that we are all in the same boat economically and environmentally, and we need to unite so solve theses problems. The 1%ers control too much and have too much say over our lives and are actually a hindrance in making the world a better place for us all. Despite some donating billions to worthy causes, it is just a drop in the bucket as to what is required. They have trillions in off-shore accounts and many more trillions in corporate holdings, from which they can control us and our laws. Look at the TPPA and TTIP agreements that are desigened to make them simply richer.

So end the hatred of all races and work to unite against the real enemy to the world the 1%ers.
 
Hmm.

I agree there's an inequality of wealth distribution. But I'm not sure uniting in hatred (if that's what you mean) against the top 1% will do it. Doesn't experience tell us that getting rid of one elite only allows another, and almost invariably nastier, one to take control?

And besides, very nearly everyone living in the developed world is almost unimaginably rich by global standards. And which of us would be prepared to accept a lower standard of living in the interests of greater equality? And if we wouldn't accept it, why would the 1%?
 
I think the hatred against any race is wrong. Its time we all realised that we are all in the same boat economically and environmentally, and we need to unite so solve theses problems. The 1%ers control too much and have too much say over our lives and are actually a hindrance in making the world a better place for us all. Despite some donating billions to worthy causes, it is just a drop in the bucket as to what is required. They have trillions in off-shore accounts and many more trillions in corporate holdings, from which they can control us and our laws. Look at the TPPA and TTIP agreements that are desigened to make them simply richer.

So end the hatred of all races and work to unite against the real enemy to the world the 1%ers.

Antisemites will argue that 99% of the 1% is Jewish.
 
Honestly, why don't people actually try becoming billionaires, instead of moaning about how bad they are?

Or try to ignore and set their own criteria of what is powerful?
 
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