Synobun
Deity
- Joined
- Nov 19, 2006
- Messages
- 24,884
Anything they do they are responsible for. Has done to them is a completely different matter.
A girl is passed out drunk and a guy has sex with her? Rape.
A girl welcomes the sexual advances of a guy and has sex with him? Consensual sex.
Your comparison still has the implication that the girl is not impaired while welcoming that act which is what we keep circling back to. You're operating under the assumption that impairment is a non-factor and thus impairment as a component in determining consent is simply a ruse.
Well, when the woman gets to decide if she was too drunk or not, that does put the power in her hands. I'm not saying the guy will be automatically convicted, but now not only does he have to show that it was consensual, he has to somehow show that she wasn't too drunk. The grey area comes from the question of "what constitutes being too drunk?" It seems to be based on the feelings of the girl after the fact. We can agree to disagree on this if you think that's fair.
The accused in a rape case rarely has to prove anything.
The law also doesn't say women get to decide what is too drunk. The law says that being drunk and not resisting does not constitute as ironclad consent. That seems fair. It ensures that a rapist can't say "well, they didn't resist" as a defense. I'm in favour of that no longer being acceptable even though I've been in a situation where such a defense was my only recourse (socially, not legally). It puts the responsibility of resisting a crime on the victim while distracting from the real problem that someone committed a crime, be it blatant or through a series of unfortunate events. I'm personally uncomfortable with a viewpoint that blames the victim for being a victim.
What? C'mon, that's not even close to what I'm saying.
Why do you think a law that says "not resisting isn't consent" is detrimental to men if it's not because you think the woman should do more to resist being raped?