"[T]he institution of slavery that the black race has long believed to be an abomination upon its people may actually have been a blessing in disguise. The blacks who could endure those conditions and circumstances would someday be rewarded with citizenship in the greatest nation ever established upon the face of the Earth. [...] Knowing what we know today about life on the African continent, would an existence spent in slavery have been any crueler than a life spent in sub-Saharan Africa?"
-Arkansas State Rep. Jon Hubbard (R)
So, it's certainly a position that some on the right choose to take.
And some in the left have the position that blacks are simply inferior:
Ernesto Guevara said:
The black is indolent and a dreamer; spending his meager wage on frivolity or drink; the European has a tradition of work and saving, which has pursued him as far as this corner of America and drives him to advance himself, even independently of his own individual aspirations.
And unlike some obscure State Rep. from Arkansas, this dude became an icon and idol for millions of left-wingers worldwide, and also a best-selling t-shirt logo.
So... I'm sure you had a point?
So unless women had it "worse" in literally every possible aspect, there was no oppression? Isn't a situation where men hold a monopoly on all positions of control and leadership, where only men can vote, hold land, etc... how the hell is that not oppressive?
Who said there was no oppression?
And again, your statement is not historically sound. Through most of human history, the vast majority of both men and women had no political power. Women of high birth had far more power than a male peasant. Universal suffrage is a very recent thing, and historically speaking men and women got it not that far apart. I'll expand on my reply to Oda below.
That is still oppression. You can't just remove the right to choose whether you want to be liable for military call-up or live almost your entire life in a basement (as was entirely normal for a woman in classical Athens) and justify it because the latter is, according to your subjective judgement, more comfortable. Even Euripides had Medea complain that she would rather fight in three battles than have to give birth once.
Nobody said it wasn't oppression. But than again, back in Euripides' day, most men were oppressed as well.
And I still want to know where teh notion that women were spared the horrors of war come from. That they suffered a little later during the "pillage and rape" phase instead of the actual battle doesn't make all that much difference. You could even make the case that hey, at least the men got a chance to fight and save themselves.
You can't conflate different historical periods to make a point. I think in relation to male-female human power relations in the West we could very broadly speak of 3 "phases"
-"The Old Days", or the overwhelming majority of human history (let's say since the dawn of civilization to around 1800, and of course I'm grossly simplifying and generalizing here). Most men and women had no political power whatsoever, slavery or serfdom were common, and all meaningful power was at the hands of a small elite composed mostly but not exclusively of men. There were queens and empresses after all. While men would die in wars, women would frequently suffer just as much in the aftermath (I suppose in Europe this begun to change before 1800 with the advent of professional armies).
-"The Transition Period", or very very roughly from around 1800 to around 1920. Men slowly and gradually got voting rights, proper legal protection, etc. Power gradually spread out from a tiny elite to more people. Arguably this was the period when the difference in rights between the "common man" and the "common woman" was the greatest, because men were becoming free while women were not (or rather not in the same pace). OTOH, fighting was done almost exclusively by men and women were mostly spared the horrors of war. If I had to guess I'd say this period was also when women's life expectancy begun to significantly exceed that of men (I'm pretty certain that's the case).
-The "Modern Period", or very very roughly from 1920 to the present. Women get voting and other rights; legal discrimination decreases to the point of being extinguished (in the 1960's or 70's in most Western countries, I'd say). Discrimination against women in the workplace and elsewhere persists but is always diminishing. Men continue to be more likely victimized by violence, be it in wars or criminality.
My point here is that you can't really tell the history of "gender relations" as one of master and slave, oppressor and oppressed. There was oppression, yes. Women were denied rights for most of history, but so were men. And women indeed got a lot of rights after men. But the whole picture is much more complex and not at all analogous to slavery.