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History Questions Not Worth Their Own Thread VIII

practically nothing . As long as it existed without a more immediate danger something could be found . If Tsars are still in charge , it is just a dictatorial abomination bent on global domination . Something like a successful Kerensky Goverment . They are secretly plotting to change your religion to Orthodoxy and don't be fooled by the shows of Democracy they fake to look similar to the West .
 
When talking about prehistoric dating in archaeology, is there a difference between BC and bc? Been try (and failing) to read The Age of STonehenge by Colin Burgess and he will refer to both. ie "This commenced with the Meldon Bridge period, with radiocarbon dates of c. 2700/2500-2150 bc, or c. 3200-2750 BC in calendar years."

The book is aimed at an educated but amateur audience and if he did explain the difference, I can't find it.
 
When talking about prehistoric dating in archaeology, is there a difference between BC and bc? Been try (and failing) to read The Age of STonehenge by Colin Burgess and he will refer to both. ie "This commenced with the Meldon Bridge period, with radiocarbon dates of c. 2700/2500-2150 bc, or c. 3200-2750 BC in calendar years."

The book is aimed at an educated but amateur audience and if he did explain the difference, I can't find it.
It does not sound like quite the normal terminology, by there is a difference between radiocarbon dates and calendar dates. When carbon dating was first introduced they assumed that the atmospheric 14C/12C ratio had remained constant over time. However we now know this is not true, and an algorithm has been proposed to correct for it. The results can then be expressed both as an uncorrected date, refered to as "radiocarbon years ago" or "uncal before present", or as a corrected date "calibrated before present".

This graph gives an idea:

1085px-Intcal_13_calibration_curve.png

The Northern Hemisphere curve from INTCAL13. As of 2017, this is the most recent version of the standard calibration curve. There are separate graphs for the Southern Hemisphere and for the calibration of marine data.

Spoiler More complicated graph :
I hate that they have used BP on one axis and BC on the other, but it does demonstrate what is going on and how it is calculated:
calibration.gif

This plot shows how the radiocarbon measurement 3000+-30BP would be calibrated. The left-hand axis shows radiocarbon concentration expressed in years `before present' and the bottom axis shows calendar years (derived from the tree ring data). The pair of blue curves show the radiocarbon measurements on the tree rings (plus and minus one standard deviation) and the red curve on the left indicates the radiocarbon concentration in the sample. The grey histogram shows possible ages for the sample (the higher the histogram the more likely that age is).
 
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so this is what it really is . A young r16 , obedient to the requirements of society always gives his seat to the elderly and whatnot . But am too tired and as it is the 90s , ı have bought some secondhand magazines , a Time or Newsweek and some article ı can make no sense of , but ı have gotta sit for a few more kilometers / minutes . And some gal ı don't know says carbondating gives wrong results starting at about 10 000 years . No joy , no comment , keep reading !
 
What if America only fought Japan in WW2 but didn't get involved in the European theater?
 
What if America only fought Japan in WW2 but didn't get involved in the European theater?

Assuming US would continue its materiel supply of allies...
Pacific Theater would be pretty much the same, perhaps with Guadalcanal and the leapfrogging island campaign being faster and more decisive. The crucial assets that won the Pacific campaign were mostly navy and naval aviation, little of which were committed to the Europe and Africa.
Eastern Front, however, might have been influenced by this to great degree. The lack of US involvement would lead to operation Torch being delayed until proper force could be assembled from Commonwealth, with subsequent Italian campaign being nigh-impossible in near future without added US manpower. Along with less pressure in the air over Europe, Germany can focus on the Eastern Front.
With those resources, operation Eisenhammer might very well be executed, leading to the loss of most electrical power within Soviet Union and thus collapse of the industry. Afterwards, unable to weaken Germany sufficiently for naval invasion, it's quite possible that Allies might sue for peace with terms favorable to Germany.
Even without it, it's quite likely that the mutual attrition would wear down Allies and they would sue for peace at terms that might preserve the Reich rather than mounting an invasion, and with only land combat being on Eastern Front and with diminished aerial campaign, Germany might drive Soviet Union into stalemate even there.
 
What if America only fought Japan in WW2 but didn't get involved in the European theater?
It wouldn't change much on strategic level, Germany wasn't prepared to fight war on attrition.
After Kursk and especially, Bagration, the outcome of WW2 in Europe was pretty much determined.
Britain would have to endure more air combat and bombings, USSR would lose more people, but in the end, invade whole Germany.
 
It wouldn't change much on strategic level, Germany wasn't prepared to fight war on attrition.
After Kursk and especially, Bagration, the outcome of WW2 in Europe was pretty much determined.
Britain would have to endure more air combat and bombings, USSR would lose more people, but in the end, invade whole Germany.

Both Kursk and Bagration were two, three years after Stalingrad and relied on Western Materiel in Soviet hands. Let's not forget that.

The Germans will ultimately collapse, but I think they can hold off the Soviets into a negotiated surrender - liberation of Poland, maybe even Czechoslovakia. Britain would never be powerful enough to launch an invasion of France by its lonesome.....
 
Both Kursk and Bagration were two, three years after Stalingrad and relied on Western Materiel in Soviet hands. Let's not forget that.
I assumed that getting involved in European front meant sending troops for invasion of Italy and D-Day.
Kursk was just several months after Stalingrad.
 
Both Kursk and Bagration were two, three years after Stalingrad and relied on Western Materiel in Soviet hands. Let's not forget that.

Western materiel was coming regardless: Lend-lease was extended to the USSR in October 1941, a couple months before the German declaration of war on the US
 
It is important to remember that the Royal Navy was able to maintain a highly effective blockade of Europe, especially in terms of food. Europe in the 1930s was a net importer of food, especially in fertilizers and feed grain. The Nazis needed to control and pacify the grain fields of Ukraine, and even if American aid to the Soviet Union remained at pre-1942 levels, the Soviet Union was fully capable of contesting control of Ukraine with the Nazis. As I understand it, US aid was largely was logistical and rear-lines support. US aid facilitated the rapid advance of Soviet forces in 1944 and that without American aid, Soviet forces would have been in a slower and smaller advance.
With the British blockade, eventually Europe is starved into submission. Whether Britain and the Soviets might come to some sort of negotiated agreement with Nazi Germany, I can't begin to guess.
 
Is there any justification in saying the Roman empire fell because of migration? BoJo said at the G20 in Rome:

When the Roman empire fell, it was largely as a result of uncontrolled immigration. The empire could no longer control its borders, people came in from the east, all over the place, and we went into a dark ages, Europe went into a dark ages that lasted a very long time.​
 
Is there any justification in saying the Roman empire fell because of migration? BoJo said at the G20 in Rome:

When the Roman empire fell, it was largely as a result of uncontrolled immigration. The empire could no longer control its borders, people came in from the east, all over the place, and we went into a dark ages, Europe went into a dark ages that lasted a very long time.​

Would it surprise you to hear that at best it was a massive oversimplification?
As @Kyriakos will no doubt say the Roman Empire didn't fall, just the Western half, many of the "invaders" came by invitation originally, frequently as mercenaries, they didn't particularly come from the East, all compass points including West really etc etc.
Even if you accept his premise that it fell due to being unable to control its borders the question arises as to what had changed about the Empire so it could no longer control its borders.
It fell because of a stagnant economy, corruption etc. The most valuable provinces remained in the ERE at least until the Arab conquests
 
Afaik the byzantine empire also started to be unable to control its borders as a direct result of overextending in the Justinian wars of reconquest of parts of Italy lost to barbarians. No soldiers left to adequately guard the Danube (balkans frontier), resulting in the deluge of slavs.
Maybe if the western empire could avoid being overrun, the two empires could have continued in some decent form up to today. At least the fourth crusade wouldn't have happened.
 
Is there any justification in saying the Roman empire fell because of migration? BoJo said at the G20 in Rome:

When the Roman empire fell, it was largely as a result of uncontrolled immigration. The empire could no longer control its borders, people came in from the east, all over the place, and we went into a dark ages, Europe went into a dark ages that lasted a very long time.​
Not in any meaningful sense. The 'Rome fell due to immigration' narrative in recent years came from Peter Heather, who based on his earlier work on the Goths knows better. The 'barbarians' that set up post-Roman successor states - Goths, Vandals, and Franks - weren't composed of fur-wearing wildmen covered in mud and squatting in bogs. Almost all of them had spent decades inside the Roman Empire, were of partial Roman parentage, or had imperial connections. Even the 'arch barbarians' Geiseric of the Vandals was related to the Theodosian dynasty by marriage. The 'barbarians' became yet another faction playing the political games and participating in the civil wars in the late empire.
With the collapse of the Theodosian dynasty, there was no agreement on what was needed for a 'legitimate' Emperor, and the Romano-barbarian notables in Gaul, Spain, and North Africa were increasingly realizing Italy was no longer the prize it once was. Without the need for 'Imperial Legitimacy' to justify a right to rule and the declining resources of Italy, there was less and less need for Romano-barbarian notables in outlying regions to fight over Italy.
Plus, the 'Dark Ages', insofar as a period can be called the 'Dark Ages' started around 600 AD, not the late 400s. Post-Roman state in France, Spain, and Italy worked along almost the same lines as the late Roman state, maintaining an urban economy, independent royal military power, and central administration. It was only after Justinian's wars in the west that saw the post-Roman states break apart into a 'dark age'. Britain may have been an exception to this, but we are limited by the terrible state of surviving writings from that period.

That Rome did not re-form, as after the 'Crisis of the Third Century', was due to the 'barbarians', but somehow I doubt BoJo is that familiar with the historiography of the late Roman Empire to be making a nuanced point about ethnic and political identity in late antiquity.
 
it was basically impossible for America not to fight Germany after Pearl Harbour considering they were already fighting . One could even argue the time table wouldn't change much . While American forces in the Atlantic were an immense host , the heavies were mostly concentrated in the Pasific anyhow ... which possibly lacked the infrastructure for faster operations . And no landing in Sicily or similar Churchillian adventures might have concentrated the Allied power on UK for a similar D-Day operation ... And the Germans would end up nuked , in all probability .
 
Is there any justification in saying the Roman empire fell because of migration? BoJo said at the G20 in Rome:

When the Roman empire fell, it was largely as a result of uncontrolled immigration. The empire could no longer control its borders, people came in from the east, all over the place, and we went into a dark ages, Europe went into a dark ages that lasted a very long time.​

JFC Bojo is saying that?

They really should know better. Especially as he and everyone else in that room are the literal descendants of those Barbarians (in addition to some 'native' Romans and 'native' Indigs by this point, it's all mixed).

Rome [Western] was capable of projecting force and compliance to the federated tribes it let in, hemming them up or even integrating them (though far more rarely and given more to individual men of status than entire peoples). Up until nearly the end, Rome could and did come around and say 'you listen to us, you...'. What broke Rome was the lack of political power and consensus, centuries of intercine strife.... Not aided by economic failings, environmental changes, sociopolitical struggles.

Rome gave up territories that weren't really critical to it, too, (which back then in the West was a surprising amount) pushing the Suevi to the literal edge of the world, the Visigoths got a corner of France, the Franks got a bit along the Rhine, they refused to give the Goths nearly anything and the Vandals ditto, thus they carved bits and pieces out, but up until almost the very end, Rome maintained direct control over much of Spain, France, and Italy.

The dogwhistle that the oh-so-scary East is gonna come and knock Europe to dark ages is...yikes.
 
How did Caesar view the future of the republic?
Did he think that it would continue as usual after his death?
 
How did Caesar view the future of the republic?
Did he think that it would continue as usual after his death?

I doubt if these concerns were flashing through his mind when he got stabbed repetitively.
 
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